ATI RN
RN VATI Pharmacology S 2019 Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer exenatide for a client who has type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following routes of administration should nurse plan to use?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Subcutaneous. Exenatide is typically administered subcutaneously because it is a peptide-based medication that needs to be absorbed slowly for optimal effects. Subcutaneous injections allow for a slow and steady release of the medication into the bloodstream, which helps in regulating blood sugar levels effectively. Oral administration is not suitable for exenatide as it would be broken down in the digestive system. Intramuscular and intravenous routes are not recommended for exenatide administration due to the risk of erratic absorption and potential adverse effects. Subcutaneous administration ensures a more predictable and consistent absorption rate, making it the most appropriate route for exenatide.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has been taking warfarin for 3 months. Which of the following laboratory results Indicates that the medication has been effective?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: INR 2.0. INR (International Normalized Ratio) measures the effectiveness of warfarin in preventing blood clotting. A therapeutic range for INR in clients on warfarin is typically between 2.0 and 3.0. An INR of 2.0 indicates that the medication is within the desired range and is effectively anticoagulating the blood to prevent clot formation.
Choice A (Hgb 14 g/dL) is a normal hemoglobin level and does not directly reflect warfarin effectiveness.
Choice B (WBC count 10,000/mm3) measures white blood cells and is not related to warfarin efficacy.
Choice D (Platelets 150,000/mm3) is a normal platelet count and does not indicate the effectiveness of warfarin.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving meperidine. Which of the following is the nurse's priority assessment before administering the medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Respiratory rate. Meperidine is an opioid analgesic that can cause respiratory depression.
Therefore, assessing the client's respiratory rate before administering the medication is crucial to prevent potential respiratory compromise. This assessment helps the nurse ensure the client can safely tolerate the medication and intervene promptly if respiratory depression occurs.
Urinary retention (choice
A) is a potential side effect of meperidine but is not the priority assessment compared to respiratory rate. Vomiting (choice
B) may be a concern in terms of medication absorption but does not directly relate to the risk of respiratory depression. Level of consciousness (choice
D) is important but may be influenced by respiratory status, making respiratory rate the priority assessment.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is starting to take aspirin 81 mg daily. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a risk factor for the client's development of an aspirin-induced ulcer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: The client smokes one pack of cigarette per day. Smoking is a known risk factor for the development of ulcers, and when combined with aspirin use, it further increases the risk. Smoking decreases the production of prostaglandins in the stomach lining, which can lead to increased susceptibility to ulcers.
Choices A, B, and D are not directly related to an increased risk of aspirin-induced ulcers.
Choice A indicates a previous history of alcohol use disorder, which may have implications for liver health but not directly related to ulcers caused by aspirin.
Choice B mentions a recent norovirus infection, which is not a risk factor for aspirin-induced ulcers.
Choice D states a history of rheumatoid arthritis, which may necessitate the use of aspirin but does not inherently increase the risk of ulcers when combined with it.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new prescription to receive a continuous infusion of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Check the client's blood glucose level regularly. This is essential as TPN is a high-calorie, nutrient-dense solution that can increase the risk of hyperglycemia. Monitoring blood glucose levels helps the nurse assess the client's response to TPN and adjust the infusion rate accordingly to prevent complications.
Option A is incorrect because changing the TPN infusion tubing once every 3 days is not a priority in this situation. Option C is incorrect as TPN should be administered through a central venous catheter, not a peripheral IV catheter. Option D is incorrect as monitoring the client's weight every 3 days is not as crucial as monitoring blood glucose levels when on TPN.