ATI Nurs 201 Med Surg 2 Exam | Nurselytic

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ATI Nurs 201 Med Surg 2 Exam Questions

Question 1 of 5

A nurse is preparing a client who is to receive chemotherapy for treatment of ovarian cancer. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Chemotherapy commonly causes nausea and vomiting, and preemptive administration of antiemetic medications can help prevent these symptoms. The nurse should follow the healthcare provider's orders and administer antiemetics as prescribed, which can significantly improve the client's comfort and adherence to the treatment plan.

Question 2 of 5

The nurse is caring for a client with uterine cancer who is being treated with brachytherapy. The UAP reports that the client ambulated to the restroom and is now reporting, 'something feels like it's coming out.' What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The priority action when a patient is receiving brachytherapy for uterine cancer is to assess for potential dislodgement of the radioactive implant. If the radiation source has been displaced, it must be handled carefully to prevent radiation exposure to the nurse, other patients, and staff. The nurse should use forceps to carefully retrieve the dislodged pellets and place them in a lead container to prevent contamination.

Question 3 of 5

A client with a diagnosis of multiple sclerosis is scheduled to receive plasmapheresis treatments. A nurse explains to the client's spouse that the purpose of plasmapheresis is to:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Plasmapheresis works by removing circulating antibodies from the bloodstream. In multiple sclerosis, the immune system mistakenly targets the myelin sheath, and plasmapheresis helps to remove the antibodies responsible for this autoimmune response. This can provide temporary relief of symptoms during acute flare-ups of MS by reducing the immune system's attack on the nervous system.

Question 4 of 5

The nurse is notified by the telemetry monitor tech that the client has been persistently in the following rhythm [see image). The client has a exhibiting the following cardiac rhythm? pulse of 130 bpm, B/P of 86/44 mm Hg, respirations of 24 with a saturation of 90%. Which of the following is a priority intervention for a client exhibiting the following cardiac rhythm?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The priority intervention for a client exhibiting this cardiac rhythm with accompanying signs of hemodynamic instability (low blood pressure, tachycardia, respiratory distress) is synchronized cardioversion. This is especially the case if the rhythm is atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter, or supraventricular tachycardia (SVT), which can be life-threatening if not treated promptly. Synchronized cardioversion is indicated when the patient is symptomatic and hemodynamically unstable.

Question 5 of 5

A nurse is caring for a client that has been recently diagnosed with Guillian-Barre syndrome. What would the nurse consider to be common risk factors associated with Guillain-Barré syndrome (GB5)? (select all that apply)

Correct Answer: A,C,E

Rationale:
A) Vaccinations, particularly those for influenza and other viral infections, have been linked to an increased risk of GBS in some cases.
C) It is believed that the stress from surgery, particularly in the presence of an infection or immune response, may trigger the development of GBS. E) Viral infections such as Zika virus, Epstein-Barr virus, cytomegalovirus (CMV), influenza, and others can trigger an autoimmune response that leads to the development of GBS.

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