ATI RN
ATI Nurs 180 Phamacology Questions
Question 1 of 5
The healthcare provider orders Ceftriaxone 20 mg IV every 6 hours. The instructions say to reconstitute 10 mg of Ceftriaxone with 6.5 ml of normal saline for a final concentration of 5 mg/ml. How many mL would the nurse administer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is option C: 3.33 mL.
To calculate the amount to administer, we first find the total dose required every 6 hours (20 mg). Since the concentration is 5 mg/ml, the nurse would administer 4 ml (20 mg / 5 mg/ml) every 6 hours.
Therefore, to find the amount for each dose, we divide 4 ml by 4 (total doses in 24 hours). Thus, the nurse would administer 1 ml (4 ml / 4) every 6 hours.
Question 2 of 5
Which strategy should be included in the education of an elder adult to prevent polypharmacy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Encourage elderly clients to keep a list of all medications, including dose and frequency, with them at all times. This strategy helps prevent polypharmacy by promoting medication management and awareness. Having a complete list ensures healthcare providers can monitor interactions and avoid duplications. Providing only written instructions (
B) may lead to confusion or errors. Using multiple pharmacies (
C) can increase the risk of drug interactions and duplicate therapies. Relying on a spouse or family member (
D) may not always be feasible or reliable.
Question 3 of 5
The healthcare provider orders azithromycin (Zithromax) 1000mg to be given as a loading dose. The nurse understands that the purpose of this loading dose is to:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Achieve therapeutic drug levels more rapidly. A loading dose is given to quickly reach effective drug levels in the body. This is important for medications like azithromycin that require a certain concentration in the bloodstream to be effective.
Choice A is incorrect because a loading dose does not affect the duration of action, only the speed of reaching therapeutic levels.
Choice B is incorrect as it does not decrease the frequency of subsequent doses, but rather establishes the initial drug concentration.
Choice D is incorrect since the loading dose does not minimize adverse effects, but rather ensures the drug reaches therapeutic levels efficiently.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who overdosed on morphine and has a respiratory rate of 6/min. Which medication should the nurse plan to administer?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Naloxone. Naloxone is a opioid antagonist used to reverse respiratory depression caused by opioid overdose like morphine. It works by competitively binding to opioid receptors, reversing the effects of morphine and restoring respiratory function. Flumazenil (
B) is used for benzodiazepine overdose, not opioids. Protamine (
C) is used to reverse heparin, not opioids. Epinephrine (
D) is used for anaphylaxis or cardiac arrest, not opioid overdose.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client who needs to have a peak drug level drawn. The client was given an oral medication 30 minutes ago. What is the best action by the nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Correct Answer: A. Wait for at least another 30 minutes before calling to have the level drawn.
Rationale:
1. Peak drug levels are typically drawn 30 minutes to 2 hours after oral medication administration to capture the highest concentration.
2. Waiting an additional 30 minutes ensures the medication has had sufficient time to be absorbed and reach peak levels.
3. Drawing the level too soon may result in inaccurate results, potentially leading to incorrect dosing adjustments.
4. Waiting the additional time aligns with best practices for peak drug level monitoring.
Summary of Incorrect
Choices:
B. Scheduling in 8 hours is too delayed for peak levels.
C. Drawing the level immediately does not allow for the medication to reach peak levels.
D. Waiting until the next day is too late for peak levels to be accurately assessed.