ATI Nurs 240 Pharmacology quiz | Nurselytic

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: A prototype drug is a medication that is considered the standard or model for a particular drug class or category. This is because a prototype drug is typically the first drug of its kind developed within a specific drug class or category. It serves as a reference point for other drugs in the same category, providing a standard for comparison in terms of efficacy, safety, and dosing.

Explanation of other choices:
A: Incorrect. A prototype drug is not used as a placebo in clinical trials; placebos are inert substances used as controls.
C: Incorrect. A prototype drug is not necessarily only available in generic form; it can be available in both brand-name and generic versions.
D: Incorrect. A prototype drug is not exclusively prescribed for pediatric patients; it can be used across different age groups depending on the specific drug and indication.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Nausea. Nausea is a common side effect of aminoglycoside therapy but does not typically require discontinuation of treatment. Nephrotoxicity (
A) and ototoxicity (
B) are serious adverse effects that warrant stopping the medication to prevent further harm. Vertigo (
D) can be a sign of ototoxicity and may require discontinuation.
Therefore, nausea is the only option that is a common but usually tolerable side effect that does not necessitate stopping the medication.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ciprofloxacin. Fluoroquinolones are a class of antibiotics that inhibit bacterial DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV. Ciprofloxacin belongs to this class and is effective against a wide range of bacteria. Cephalexin (
B) is a cephalosporin, Penicillin (
C) is a beta-lactam antibiotic, and Azithromycin (
D) is a macrolide antibiotic. These antibiotics have different mechanisms of action and are not fluoroquinolones.
Therefore, Ciprofloxacin is the correct choice in this scenario.

Correct Answer: B,C,E

Rationale:
Correct Answer: B, C, E


Rationale:
1. Physical therapy for stroke patients (
B) helps prevent complications and improve function post-stroke.
2. Management of chronic pain in arthritis (
C) aims to control symptoms and prevent disease progression.
3. Cardiac rehabilitation after a myocardial infarction (E) focuses on preventing future cardiac events through exercise and education.

Incorrect

Choices:
A: Screening for high blood pressure - This is an example of secondary prevention aimed at early detection but not specific to individuals already affected.
D: Vaccination for hepatitis B - This is an example of primary prevention, targeting individuals without prior exposure to prevent infection.
F: Hand hygiene promotion to prevent infections - This is a form of primary prevention by reducing the risk of infection.
G: Routine mammograms for early breast cancer detection - This is an example of secondary prevention for early detection in asymptomatic individuals.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale:
Correct Answer: D - Educating healthcare providers and patients about appropriate antibiotic use


Rationale:
1. Education promotes understanding of when antibiotics are necessary, reducing unnecessary use.
2. Proper education helps prevent misuse and overuse of antibiotics, decreasing resistance.
3. Healthcare providers and patients making informed decisions contribute to combating antibiotic resistance.

Summary:
- A, B, and C promote misuse of antibiotics, leading to resistance.
- D stands out as the correct choice due to its focus on education, which is key in minimizing antibiotic resistance.