ATI Pharmocology Exam Fletcher NRSG 106 | Nurselytic

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ATI Pharmocology Exam Fletcher NRSG 106 Questions

Question 1 of 5

A 6-year-old boy has been started on an extended-release form of methylphenidate hydrochloride for the treatment of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). During a follow-up visit, his mother tells the nurse that she has been giving the medication at bedtime so that it will be 'in his system' when he goes to school the next morning. What is the nurse's appropriate evaluation of the mother's actions?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Methylphenidate hydrochloride is a stimulant medication commonly used for ADHD. Giving the extended-release form of the medication at bedtime can lead to difficulty falling asleep due to its stimulating effects. By giving the last dose 4 to 6 hours before bedtime, the stimulant effects will diminish, allowing the child to fall asleep more easily.


Choice B is incorrect because taking the medication with meals does not impact its absorption significantly.
Choice C is incorrect because withholding the medication until he is at school would not be beneficial for managing his symptoms throughout the day.
Choice D is incorrect because giving the medication at bedtime is not appropriate due to the risk of insomnia.

Question 2 of 5

A patient in a rehabilitation center is beginning to experience opioid withdrawal symptoms. The nurse expects to administer which drug as part of the treatment?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Methadone. Methadone is commonly used in opioid withdrawal management due to its ability to alleviate withdrawal symptoms and reduce cravings without producing the euphoric effects of opioids. It helps stabilize patients and prevent relapse.
A: Bupropion is used for smoking cessation and depression, not opioid withdrawal.
C: Disulfiram is used for alcohol aversion therapy, not opioid withdrawal.
D: Phenobarbital is a barbiturate used for seizure control, not opioid withdrawal.
In summary, Methadone is the correct choice as it is specifically indicated for opioid withdrawal management, while the other options are used for different purposes.

Question 3 of 5

The nurse has given medication instructions to a patient receiving phenytoin. Which statement by the patient indicates that the patient has an adequate understanding of the instructions?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "I will need to take extra care of my teeth and gums while on this medication." This indicates an understanding of the medication's side effects, as phenytoin can cause gum overgrowth. It shows awareness of the importance of dental hygiene while on the drug.
Choice B is incorrect because stopping the medication abruptly can lead to seizure recurrence.
Choice C is incorrect as alcohol can interact with phenytoin and affect its efficacy.
Choice D is incorrect because skipping doses can lead to suboptimal seizure control.

Question 4 of 5

During the immediate postoperative period, the Post Anesthesia Care Unit nurse is assessing a patient who had hip surgery. The patient is experiencing tachycardia, tachypnea, and muscle rigidity, and his temperature is 103°F (39.4°C). The nurse will prepare for what immediate treatment?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dantrolene injection, a skeletal muscle relaxant. The patient is exhibiting signs of malignant hyperthermia (MH), a potentially life-threatening complication of anesthesia. Dantrolene is the definitive treatment for MH as it inhibits calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, preventing muscle rigidity and hyperthermia. CPR and intubation (
B) are not indicated as the patient's airway and circulation are currently stable. An anticholinesterase drug like neostigmine (
C) would exacerbate muscle rigidity in MH. Naltrexone hydrochloride (
D) is used for opioid reversal, which is not relevant in this scenario.

Question 5 of 5

When assessing patients in the preoperative area, the nurse knows that which patient is at a higher risk for an altered response to anesthesia?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale:
Rationale: The 82-year-old patient undergoing gallbladder removal is at higher risk due to age-related physiological changes. Elderly patients have decreased organ function, altered drug metabolism, and increased sensitivity to anesthesia, leading to potential complications. Option A is less likely to have altered response due to youth. Option B's surgery is not as invasive as gallbladder removal. Option D's smoking history is relevant but not as significant as age-related changes in option C.

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