ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Exam Final Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for ferrous sulfate tablets twice daily for iron-deficiency anemia. The client asks the nurse why the provider instructed that she take the ferrous sulfate between meals. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Taking the medication between meals will help you absorb the medication more efficiently. Iron absorption is hindered by certain substances present in food, such as fiber, calcium, and tannins. Taking ferrous sulfate between meals enhances its absorption as it is less likely to interact with food components that inhibit absorption.
Choice A is incorrect as constipation is not directly related to meal timing.
Choice B is incorrect because taking it with food does not increase the risk of esophagitis.
Choice C is incorrect as nausea is not necessarily caused by taking the medication with food.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving mydriatic eye drops. Which of the following manifestations indicates to the nurse that the client has developed a systemic anticholinergic effect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Constipation. Mydriatic eye drops contain anticholinergic medications that can lead to systemic anticholinergic effects. Constipation is a common manifestation of anticholinergic toxicity due to the inhibition of gastrointestinal motility. Bradycardia, seizures, and hypothermia are not typical systemic anticholinergic effects. Bradycardia could be a result of excessive vagal stimulation, seizures are not a common anticholinergic effect, and hypothermia is not directly associated with anticholinergic toxicity.
Therefore, constipation is the most relevant manifestation indicating systemic anticholinergic effect in this scenario.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has liver failure with ascites and is receiving spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased sodium level. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic commonly used in liver failure with ascites to prevent hypokalemia. It works by blocking aldosterone receptors, leading to retention of potassium and excretion of sodium. In liver failure, sodium retention is a common issue due to decreased production of albumin and impaired liver function, leading to ascites.
Therefore, the nurse should expect a decreased sodium level as spironolactone helps in excreting sodium to manage fluid overload.
Incorrect choices:
A: Decreased chloride level - Spironolactone does not directly affect chloride levels.
C: Decreased potassium level - Spironolactone helps in retaining potassium.
D: Decreased phosphate level - Spironolactone does not directly impact phosphate levels in this context.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has prostate cancer. The nurse should expect the provider to prescribe which of the following medications for this client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Leuprolide. Leuprolide is a gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonist used to treat prostate cancer by suppressing the production of testosterone, which can slow the growth of prostate cancer cells. Finasteride (choice
A) is a 5-alpha-reductase inhibitor used for benign prostatic hyperplasia, not prostate cancer. Cyclophosphamide (choice
C) is an alkylating agent used for various cancers but not typically for prostate cancer. Tamoxifen (choice
D) is a selective estrogen receptor modulator used for breast cancer, not prostate cancer.
Therefore, Leuprolide is the most appropriate choice for treating prostate cancer in this scenario.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is providing teaching for a client who has diabetes and a new prescription for insulin glargine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide regarding this type of insulin?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin with a duration of action of approximately 18 to 24 hours. This type of insulin provides a steady level of basal insulin over an extended period, making it ideal for maintaining blood sugar levels between meals and overnight. Option A is correct because it accurately reflects the duration of action of insulin glargine. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they provide inaccurate information about the duration of action, which may lead to incorrect dosing and potential complications for the client.