ATI RN
ATI Capstone Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who is in skeletal traction. The nurse should correct which of the following findings?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the weights in skeletal traction should not rest against the foot of the bed to ensure proper traction force. The weights need to hang freely to provide continuous traction on the affected body part. Placing the weights against the foot of the bed could lead to uneven or inadequate traction force, affecting the treatment effectiveness and potentially causing harm to the client.
Choice A is incorrect because the ropes should be in the center of the wheel grooves to maintain proper alignment and prevent slipping.
Choice B is incorrect because the ropes should be securely attached to the pins to ensure stability and prevent accidental detachment.
Choice C is incorrect because the weights do not need to be equal on each side; the amount of weight applied is determined by the healthcare provider based on the specific treatment plan.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is assigned to care for a client who is 2 days postoperative after an above-the-knee amputation of the right leg. The nurse plans to implement which measure to prevent hip contractures?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Correct
Answer: D. Position the client on the abdomen for 20 to 30 minutes twice a day.
Rationale: Positioning the client on the abdomen helps prevent hip contractures by stretching the hip flexors and maintaining hip extension. This position also helps to prevent hip adduction contractures, which can occur due to prolonged positioning on the back. By alternating positions, the client's hip joint is kept in a more functional and extended position, reducing the risk of contractures.
Summary of other choices:
A: Maintaining the client in a supine position does not actively prevent hip contractures and may even contribute to hip flexion contractures.
B: Maintaining a high-Fowler's position when the client is in bed does not address hip extension and may lead to hip flexion contractures.
C: Elevating the stump on a pillow is important for stump care but does not specifically target prevention of hip contractures.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following is an expected finding for this client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Spider angiomas. In cirrhosis, the liver is damaged leading to increased pressure in the portal vein. This results in dilated blood vessels on the skin surface known as spider angiomas. This finding is expected due to the liver's inability to process blood effectively.
Choice A (Moist skin) is incorrect as cirrhosis commonly causes dry and itchy skin.
Choice B (Blood in the urine) is incorrect because cirrhosis typically does not directly affect the kidneys.
Choice D (Tarry stools) is incorrect as it is a symptom of gastrointestinal bleeding, which can occur in cirrhosis but is not a specific finding.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is providing teaching to a group of clients. Which of the following clients is at risk for developing peripheral arterial disease?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: A client who has diabetes mellitus. Diabetes mellitus is a major risk factor for developing peripheral arterial disease (PA
D) due to atherosclerosis caused by high blood sugar levels damaging blood vessels over time. This leads to reduced blood flow to the extremities, increasing the risk of PAD.
Choice A is incorrect as fat intake alone does not directly correlate with PAD development.
Choice C is incorrect as moderate alcohol consumption is not a significant risk factor for PAD.
Choice D is incorrect as hypothyroidism is not a primary risk factor for PAD. It is essential to focus on diabetes management and lifestyle modifications to reduce the risk of developing PAD in clients with diabetes mellitus.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is experiencing atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the nurse plan to monitor for and report to the provider immediately?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Slurred speech. Slurred speech can be a sign of a potential stroke, which can occur in patients with atrial fibrillation due to the risk of blood clots forming in the heart. This finding should be reported immediately to the provider for further evaluation and intervention to prevent further complications. Monitoring for slurred speech helps in early detection and prompt management of a potential stroke.
Other choices such as A: Irregular pulse, B: Persistent fatigue, and C: Dependent edema are common in patients with heart failure and atrial fibrillation but are not immediate concerns requiring urgent intervention like slurred speech indicating a potential stroke.