ATI Med Surg N241 Exam | Nurselytic

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ATI Med Surg N241 Exam Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client has the following arterial blood gas (ABG) results: pH 7.51, PaCO2 39 mm Hg, HCO3 32 mEq/L. How would the nurse interpret these results?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The ABG results show an elevated pH and HCO3, which are indicative of metabolic alkalosis. The PaCO2 is within the normal range, suggesting that it is uncompensated.

Question 2 of 5

The client has been instructed about levothyroxine (Synthroid) therapy. Which statement by the client requires follow-up by the nurse?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach, typically 30 minutes to an hour before breakfast, to ensure proper absorption. This statement indicates a misunderstanding that requires nurse follow-up.

Question 3 of 5

The nurse is admitting a client diagnosed with a urinary tract infection (UTI) and sepsis. Which intervention would the nurse consider a priority?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Administering antibiotics is the most critical intervention for a client with sepsis due to a UTI, as it directly addresses the underlying infection and can be life-saving.

Question 4 of 5

The nurse receives report for a client with acute pancreatitis on hospital day 2: NPO with NGT to low intermittent suction, VS: 110/60, 99.2°F-97- 22, 0.9% NS infusing at 125 mL/hour, and IV antibiotics have been started. Chart review reveals the following current laboratory results. Which is a priority for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: While an elevated WBC count may indicate infection, it is not unexpected in acute pancreatitis. Serum potassium within normal range does not require immediate intervention. Serum albumin within normal range does not require immediate intervention. Lipase levels significantly elevated above the normal range indicate ongoing pancreatic inflammation and may require intervention or adjustment of treatment.

Question 5 of 5

The nurse recognizes that a patient with sepsis is at risk to develop hypotension. Which pathophysiological process is responsible for this symptom?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In sepsis, inflammatory mediators cause vasodilation and increased capillary permeability, leading to fluid leaking out of the vascular space, resulting in hypotension.

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