ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who received a dose of IV morphine for pain. Which of the following vital signs indicates the client is having an adverse reaction to the medication?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Respiratory rate 10/min. A decreased respiratory rate is indicative of respiratory depression, a serious adverse reaction to morphine. Morphine is a central nervous system depressant that can slow down the respiratory drive, leading to hypoventilation and potentially respiratory arrest. In contrast, choices A, B, and C are within normal limits and not specific to morphine adverse effects. A high blood pressure may be seen with pain or anxiety, while a normal temperature and heart rate are not typically affected by morphine.
Therefore, the respiratory rate is the most critical vital sign to monitor for adverse reactions to IV morphine.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving magnesium sulfate IV bolus for preeclampsia. The client's respiratory rate is 6/min and they have absent deep tendon reflexes. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate the provider to prescribe?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Calcium gluconate. In this scenario, the client is showing signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity, including respiratory depression and absent deep tendon reflexes. Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity as it competes with magnesium for receptor sites, counteracting its effects. Methylergonovine is used to prevent or control postpartum hemorrhage, not for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose, not for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Dexamethasone is a corticosteroid used for various conditions but is not indicated for magnesium sulfate toxicity.
Extract:
Vital Signs Day 1:
Temperature 36.2 0 C (97.20 F) Respiratory rate 18/min
Heart rate 74/min
Blood pressure 1 1 8/68 mm Hg Sp02 96% on room air
Day 7:
Temperature 36.9 0 C (98.40 F) Heart rate 86/min
Respiratory rate 18/min Blood pressure 98/66 mm Hg Sp02 97% on room air
Provider Prescriptions Day 1:
Levodopa 250 mg/Carbidopa 25 mg 1 tablet daily Day
7:
Levodopa 250 mg/Carbidopa 25 mg 2 tablets daily
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following statements should the nurse include when teaching the client about the prescribed medication? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A,B,D,E,F
Rationale: The correct statements to include when teaching the client about the prescribed medication are A, B, D, E, and F.
A: Consumption of a high-protein meal can reduce the effectiveness of the medication - Important for optimizing medication efficacy.
B: You can experience vivid nightmares - Warns of potential side effect.
D: The medication can cause nausea, so take with a meal - Helps manage potential side effect.
E: This medication can make you light-headed if you stand up too quickly from a seated or lying position - Warns of potential adverse effect.
F: You may initially notice an increase in involuntary movements - Informs about potential side effect.
These statements cover important aspects such as medication effectiveness, common side effects, how to manage side effects, and potential adverse effects. Other choices are incorrect because they do not address key information related to the medication's effects, side effects, or how to manage them effectively.
Extract:
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client with hypertension who is receiving propranolol. Which of the following findings requires the nurse's intervention?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Heart rate of 56/min. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that can cause bradycardia as a side effect. A heart rate of 56/min is lower than the normal range, indicating bradycardia. This finding requires the nurse's intervention as it can lead to decreased cardiac output and potential complications.
Choice B (Sa02 95% on 2 L/min of oxygen) indicates adequate oxygen saturation and does not require immediate intervention.
Choice C (Respirations 22/min) falls within the normal range and does not require immediate intervention.
Choice D (Blood pressure 106/68 mm Hg) is within normal limits for a client with hypertension on propranolol and does not require immediate intervention.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse in a provider's office is evaluating the effectiveness of alendronate for a client who has osteoporosis. Which of the following diagnostic results should the nurse review?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (Dexa scan). The Dexa scan is a diagnostic test used to measure bone mineral density and assess the effectiveness of osteoporosis treatment like alendronate. It helps in monitoring the client's bone health and determining if the medication is working to prevent further bone loss. Reviewing the Dexa scan results can provide valuable information on the client's response to the treatment.
Choice A (Urine specific gravity) is not relevant to evaluating the effectiveness of alendronate for osteoporosis.
Choice B (Hemoglobin A1
C) is a test for diabetes management and not specific to osteoporosis treatment.
Choice D (Lumbar puncture) is an invasive procedure used to collect cerebrospinal fluid and is not related to evaluating osteoporosis treatment.