ATI RN
ATI RN Capstone Pharmacology 2 Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who started taking furosemide 2 days ago and has a potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L (3.5 to 5 mEq/L). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Depressed deep tendon reflexes. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes potassium excretion, leading to hypokalemia. Low potassium levels can result in decreased neuromuscular excitability, causing depressed deep tendon reflexes. Muscle rigidity (
A) is not typically associated with hypokalemia. Bounding radial pulses (
B) are more indicative of fluid volume excess. Increased bowel motility (
D) is not commonly associated with low potassium levels.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is reviewing the lab work of a client on a medical-surgical unit who has a new prescription for captopril. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse identify as the priority to monitor?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium. When a client is prescribed captopril, an ACE inhibitor, the nurse should closely monitor potassium levels as ACE inhibitors can cause hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac complications such as arrhythmias. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent potential life-threatening events. Alanine aminotransferase (choice
A) is not directly affected by captopril. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (choice
B) is not typically monitored when starting captopril. Magnesium (choice
D) is not the priority lab value to monitor compared to potassium when starting captopril.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has varicella-zoster virus. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Rationale: Varicella-zoster virus causes chickenpox and shingles. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication effective against herpes viruses like varicella-zoster. It inhibits viral DNA replication, reducing symptoms and complications. Vancomycin (
B) is an antibiotic for bacterial infections, not viral. Gentamicin (
C) is also an antibiotic, ineffective against viruses. Quinine (
D) is primarily used for malaria and muscle cramps, not varicella-zoster virus.
Therefore, the correct answer is A, acyclovir, to treat the viral infection effectively.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving a continuous IV infusion of dopamine. Which of the following findings requires immediate intervention by the nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Infiltration of the peripheral IV. Dopamine is a potent vasoactive medication that can cause tissue necrosis and extravasation injury if it leaks into the surrounding tissue. Immediate intervention is crucial to prevent tissue damage and ensure the medication continues to be delivered properly. Increased blood pressure (
B) is an expected response to dopamine infusion. Occasional PVCs (
C) and a heart rate of 105/min (
D) are common side effects of dopamine but do not require immediate intervention unless they become frequent or symptomatic.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for isoniazid to treat tuberculosis. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. The nurse should include information about the need for frequent sputum tests to monitor the effectiveness of isoniazid in treating tuberculosis. This is crucial because monitoring sputum tests helps assess the response to the medication and the progression of the disease.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. B is incorrect because isoniazid treatment for tuberculosis typically lasts for several months, not just one month. C is incorrect because isoniazid absorption can be affected by antacids containing aluminum, so they should not be taken together. D is incorrect because constipation is not a common side effect of isoniazid.