ATI RN
ATI RN Pharmacology 2023 IV Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer propranolol to a client. Which of the following should the nurse assess prior to administering this medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Heart rate. Before administering propranolol, a beta-blocker, the nurse should assess the client's heart rate because this medication works by slowing down the heart rate and reducing blood pressure. Monitoring the heart rate helps ensure the medication is given safely and effectively. Assessing pain level (
A) is important but not directly related to propranolol administration. Temperature (
B) is not typically a crucial assessment before giving propranolol. Respiratory rate (
D) is also important but not the priority when administering this medication.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer an antibiotic via intermittent IV bolus to a client who is already receiving an infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride at 100 mL/hr. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hang the secondary infusion higher than the primary IV infusion. This is to ensure that the antibiotic is infused first and at a faster rate than the maintenance fluid, preventing dilution of the antibiotic. Placing the secondary infusion higher allows gravity to push the antibiotic into the bloodstream before the maintenance fluid. Having another nurse verify the medication (choice
A) is a good practice but not directly related to the administration process. Disconnecting the primary IV infusion (choice
C) would interrupt the maintenance fluid, causing potential harm to the client. Flushing the IV site with sterile water (choice
D) is not necessary in this case and could introduce contaminants.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse in an outpatient clinic is teaching a client who has a new prescription for oxycodone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: You should take a stool softener while taking this medication. Oxycodone is an opioid analgesic that can cause constipation as a side effect. Taking a stool softener can help prevent or alleviate constipation.
Choice A is incorrect because oxycodone does not typically cause increased urination.
Choice B is incorrect because oxycodone should be taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects.
Choice D is incorrect because there is no need to minimize sunlight exposure specifically with oxycodone.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who received midazolam IV for moderate (conscious) sedation. Which of the following assessments is the nurse's priority?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Level of consciousness. When a client receives midazolam for conscious sedation, the priority assessment is the level of consciousness to ensure the client is responsive and maintains airway patency. This assessment allows the nurse to monitor for any signs of over-sedation or respiratory depression, which are potential side effects of midazolam. Monitoring the client's temperature, heart rate, and oxygen saturation are important, but they are secondary to assessing the level of consciousness in this scenario. Checking the temperature may be important for general assessment, heart rate for potential adverse effects, and oxygen saturation for respiratory status, but the primary concern is ensuring the client remains conscious and responsive during the sedation procedure.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is teaching a client who has stable angina and a new prescription for nitroglycerin transdermal patches 0.8 mg/hr daily. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "I will take the patch off after dinner every night." This statement indicates understanding because nitroglycerin patches are typically worn for 12-14 hours, then removed for a 10-12 hour patch-free period to prevent tolerance. Removing the patch after dinner ensures a suitable time frame for effectiveness without interruption.
Choice B is incorrect because applying a new patch to the same site repeatedly can lead to skin irritation and reduced absorption.
Choice C is incorrect as cutting the patch compromises the controlled release mechanism and can cause an uneven dose.
Choice D is incorrect because applying a second patch without medical advice can lead to overdose and severe hypotension.