ATI RN
ATI Nproo 2100 Exam Unit 3 Fundamentals Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing hypovolemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Oliguria is expected in hypovolemia due to reduced renal perfusion. Hypertension, bradycardia, and edema are associated with other conditions.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is teaching a client who has septic shock about the development of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: DIC involves abnormal coagulation, consuming fibrinogen and platelets, causing clots and bleeding. Platelet counts drop, heparin is not lifelong, and DIC is not genetic.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client for a suspected anaphylactic reaction following a CT scan with contrast media. For which of the following client findings should the nurse intervene first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Stridor indicates airway obstruction, a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate intervention. Hypotension, urticaria, and vomiting are addressed after securing the airway.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has HIV. Which of the following laboratory values is the nurse's priority?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: CD4-T-cell count of 180 cells/mm3 indicates AIDS and high risk for infections, making it the priority. Other values are normal or less urgent.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has HIV and a CD4-T-cell count of 150/mm³. Which of the following conditions should the nurse monitor the client for?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A CD4-T-cell count of 150/mm³ indicates severe immunosuppression, increasing susceptibility to opportunistic infections like tuberculosis. Hepatitis, gonorrhea, and chlamydia are not directly linked to low CD4 counts.