ATI RN
ATI RN Pharmacology Proctored Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is taking amitriptyline. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A:
Total bilirubin 1.5 mg/dL. Amitriptyline can cause hepatotoxicity, leading to increased bilirubin levels. Elevated bilirubin can indicate liver dysfunction, necessitating immediate reporting to the provider for further evaluation.
Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and not directly affected by amitriptyline use.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is providing teaching to a client about the administration of omeprazole. Which of the following should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Rationale: The correct answer is C: You should take this medication before meals. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that works best when taken before meals to inhibit gastric acid secretion. Taking it before meals maximizes its effectiveness.
Choice A is incorrect because omeprazole can be taken with antacids if necessary.
Choice B is incorrect as there is no need to reduce calcium intake while taking omeprazole.
Choice D is incorrect because taking a second dose without consulting a healthcare provider can lead to an overdose.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer subcutaneous heparin to a client. Which of the following should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because inserting the needle at least 5 cm from the umbilicus helps prevent injury to the underlying structures. It ensures proper administration of the medication into the subcutaneous tissue, reducing the risk of complications. Massaging the site after administering the medication (choice
A) is incorrect as it can cause bruising and discomfort. Using a 21-gauge needle (choice
B) is incorrect because a smaller gauge needle is typically recommended for subcutaneous injections. Aspirating before injecting the medication (choice
C) is unnecessary for subcutaneous injections as there are no major blood vessels in the subcutaneous tissue.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse manager is planning an in-service about pain management with opioids for clients who have cancer. Which of the following information should the nurse manager include?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
1. Opioid tolerance develops with continued use, leading to a decrease in respiratory depression risk.
2. This knowledge is crucial for safe opioid administration in cancer patients.
3. Respiratory depression risk is a significant concern with opioid use.
4. Understanding the development of tolerance helps in monitoring and managing opioid side effects.
Summary:
A: IM administration is not necessarily recommended over PO opioids; routes should be individualized.
C: Meperidine is not the opioid of choice due to toxic metabolites and limited duration of action.
D: PRN medications should not be withheld; they are essential for effective pain management.
E, F, G: No information provided.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who reports taking over-the-counter antacids. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a manifestation of hypercalcemia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Constipation. Hypercalcemia, an elevated calcium level in the blood, can lead to constipation due to the inhibitory effect of excess calcium on smooth muscle contraction in the gastrointestinal tract. Decreased urine output (choice
B) is typically associated with dehydration rather than hypercalcemia. Positive Trousseau's sign (choice
C) is a sign of hypocalcemia, not hypercalcemia. Headache (choice
D) is a nonspecific symptom and is not a common manifestation of hypercalcemia.