ATI RN Pharmacology Proctored Exam -Nurselytic

Questions 66

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ATI RN Pharmacology Proctored Exam Questions

Extract:


Question 1 of 5

A nurse inadvertently administers 160 mg of valsartan PO to a client who was scheduled to receive 80 mg. Which of the following actions is the priority for the nurse to take?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Evaluate the client for orthostatic hypotension. This is the priority because an overdose of valsartan, a medication used to treat hypertension, can lead to a sudden drop in blood pressure. Orthostatic hypotension is a potential complication that can result from this overdose, and it requires immediate assessment and intervention to prevent further complications such as falls or decreased perfusion to vital organs. Monitoring urine output (
B) is important for some medications but is not the priority in this case. Obtaining laboratory results (
C) may be necessary in the long term but is not urgent in this situation. Checking for nasal congestion (
D) is not relevant to the issue at hand.

Question 2 of 5

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for enoxaparin. Which of the following medications for pain relief should the nurse include in the teaching that can be taken concurrently with enoxaparin?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale:
Rationale: Acetaminophen is the correct choice because it does not have an antiplatelet effect like aspirin, ibuprofen, and naproxen sodium. Enoxaparin is an anticoagulant that works by preventing blood clots, so it is safer to take acetaminophen for pain relief as it does not increase the risk of bleeding. Aspirin, ibuprofen, and naproxen sodium can increase the risk of bleeding when taken with enoxaparin due to their antiplatelet effects.
Therefore, acetaminophen is the safest option for pain relief while on enoxaparin therapy.

Question 3 of 5

A nurse is assessing a client who is taking haloperidol and is experiencing pseudoparkinsonism. Which of the following findings should the nurse document as a manifestation of pseudoparkinsonism?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Shuffling gait. Pseudoparkinsonism is a side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol, characterized by symptoms similar to Parkinson's disease. A shuffling gait, which is a slow, dragging walk with short steps and reduced arm swing, is a classic manifestation. Serpentine limb movement (
A) is not associated with pseudoparkinsonism. Nonreactive pupils (
C) are not a typical symptom of pseudoparkinsonism. Smacking lips (
D) is a sign of tardive dyskinesia, another side effect of antipsychotic medications.

Question 4 of 5

A nurse is caring for a client who is 12 hr postpartum and has a third-degree perineal laceration. The client reports not having a bowel movement for 4 days. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bisacodyl 10 mg per rectum. Bisacodyl is a stimulant laxative that helps stimulate bowel movements. Given the client's situation of not having a bowel movement for 4 days postpartum with a third-degree perineal laceration, prompt relief is needed to prevent complications such as constipation or increased pressure on the perineal area. Administering Bisacodyl per rectum will provide a faster onset of action compared to oral medications, ensuring timely relief for the client.


Choice B: Magnesium hydroxide is a laxative used for constipation but may not provide immediate relief for the client in this urgent situation.


Choice C: Famotidine is a histamine-2 blocker used for managing stomach acid but is not indicated for addressing constipation.


Choice D: Loperamide is an antidiarrheal medication and is contraindicated in this scenario as it can worsen constipation.

Question 5 of 5

A home health nurse is visiting a client who has heart failure and a prescription for furosemide. The nurse identifies that the client has gained 2.5 kg (5 lb.) since the last visit 2 days ago. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Notify the provider of the client's weight gain. This is the first action the nurse should take because sudden weight gain in a client with heart failure could indicate fluid retention, which may worsen the client's condition. By notifying the provider, the nurse can ensure timely intervention to adjust the medication or treatment plan. Encouraging leg dangling (
A) may help with circulation but does not address the immediate concern of weight gain. Teaching about low-sodium foods (
B) is important for long-term management but not the priority at this moment. Determining medication adherence (
C) is important but should come after addressing the immediate weight gain issue.

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