ATI RN
ATI RN Pharmacology 2023 II Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is planning care for a group of clients. Which of the following client's medications should be monitored by the nurse for hearing loss related to a medication interaction?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Furosemide and amikacin. Furosemide is a loop diuretic known to cause ototoxicity (hearing loss) and when combined with amikacin, an aminoglycoside antibiotic also known to cause ototoxicity, the risk of hearing loss is increased. Digoxin (
A) is associated with visual disturbances, not hearing loss. Losartan and atorvastatin (
C) are not known to cause hearing loss. Propranolol and raloxifene (
D) do not have ototoxic effects.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Electrolyte imbalance.
Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) provides essential nutrients directly into the bloodstream, bypassing the digestive system. This can lead to electrolyte imbalances due to the concentrated nature of the solution. Monitoring electrolyte levels is crucial to prevent complications such as hyperglycemia or hypokalemia. Diarrhea (
A), aspiration pneumonia (
B), and nausea (
D) are not typically associated with TPN administration.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer a medication to a client for the first time and needs to know about potential food and medication interactions. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Consult a drug reference guide for possible interactions. This is the best action because drug reference guides provide comprehensive information on potential interactions between medications and food. By consulting a drug reference guide, the nurse can ensure that the client's medication is administered safely and effectively. Checking the client's medical record (
Choice
A) may not always contain the most up-to-date information on interactions. Asking another nurse (
Choice
C) may not guarantee accurate information. Having the client take the medication on an empty stomach (
Choice
D) without proper knowledge of interactions can be harmful.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is providing teaching to a client about how to self-administer subcutaneous injections of enoxaparin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Correct Answer: A. Ensure that the air bubble remains in the syringe.
Rationale: Leaving the air bubble in the syringe ensures accurate dosing of enoxaparin. The air bubble acts as a safety measure to prevent any medication loss during injection. Removing the air bubble could lead to underdosing the medication.
Incorrect:
B: Injecting into the lateral thigh is incorrect as enoxaparin is usually administered in the abdomen.
C: Releasing the skin fold before injecting ensures proper needle insertion but is not specific to enoxaparin administration.
D: Rubbing the site after injection can cause bruising and is not recommended.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is preparing to titrate a continuous nitroprusside infusion for a client. The nurse should plan to titrate the infusion according to which of the following assessments?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blood pressure. When titrating nitroprusside, a vasodilator used to lower blood pressure, monitoring blood pressure is crucial. The goal is to maintain a specific target blood pressure range to prevent hypotension or hypertension. Adjusting the infusion rate based on blood pressure ensures the client's hemodynamic stability. Monitoring stroke volume, cardiac output, or urine output is not specific to the effects of nitroprusside. Blood pressure directly reflects the drug's vasodilatory effect, making it the most appropriate parameter to guide titration.