ATI RN
ATI Nproo 2100 Exam Unit 3 Fundamentals Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse in a clinic is assessing a client who has AIDS and a significantly decreased CD4-T-cell count. The nurse should recognize that the client is at risk for developing which of the following infectious oral conditions?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Candidiasis (oral thrush) is a common opportunistic infection in AIDS due to immunosuppression. Other conditions are less specific.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following signs is most commonly associated with respiratory alkalosis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rapid, shallow breathing and panic are typical of respiratory alkalosis due to hyperventilation. Other signs are not characteristic.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has the following arterial blood gas results: HCO3 18 mEq, PaCO2 28 mm Hg, and pH 7.30. The nurse recognizes the client is experiencing which of the following acid-base imbalances?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Low pH (7.30) and low HCO3 (18 mEq) indicate metabolic acidosis. Low PaCO2 suggests respiratory compensation.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following signs are commonly associated with fluid volume deficit (hypovolemia)? (Select All that Apply.)
Correct Answer: A,C
Rationale: Orthostatic hypotension and decreased skin turgor are signs of hypovolemia. Bradycardia, weight gain, and pulmonary edema indicate other conditions.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has HIV and a CD4-T-cell count of 150/mm³. Which of the following conditions should the nurse monitor the client for?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A CD4-T-cell count of 150/mm³ indicates severe immunosuppression, increasing susceptibility to opportunistic infections like tuberculosis. Hepatitis, gonorrhea, and chlamydia are not directly linked to low CD4 counts.