ATI RN
ATI Nproo 2100 Exam Unit 3 Fundamentals Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A patient's ABG shows: pH 7.32, PaCO2 50 mmHg, HCO3 24 mEq/L. What is the correct diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Low pH (7.32) and high PaCO2 (50 mmHg) with normal HCO3 indicate respiratory acidosis. Other diagnoses do not match.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse in a clinic is assessing a client who has AIDS and a significantly decreased CD4-T-cell count. The nurse should recognize that the client is at risk for developing which of the following infectious oral conditions?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Candidiasis (oral thrush) is a common opportunistic infection in AIDS due to immunosuppression. Other conditions are less specific.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing anaphylactic shock in response to the administration of penicillin. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer first?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylactic shock, reversing allergic reactions. Other medications are secondary or unrelated.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following signs are commonly associated with fluid volume deficit (hypovolemia)? (Select All that Apply.)
Correct Answer: A,C
Rationale: Orthostatic hypotension and decreased skin turgor are signs of hypovolemia. Bradycardia, weight gain, and pulmonary edema indicate other conditions.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has HIV and a CD4-T-cell count of 150/mm³. Which of the following conditions should the nurse monitor the client for?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A CD4-T-cell count of 150/mm³ indicates severe immunosuppression, increasing susceptibility to opportunistic infections like tuberculosis. Hepatitis, gonorrhea, and chlamydia are not directly linked to low CD4 counts.