ATI RN
ATI Nur 270 Pediatrics GI GU Exam Questions
Extract:
A 3-year-old child with pyelonephritis weighing 33 lb
Question 1 of 5
A 3-year-old child is hospitalized with a diagnosis of pyelonephritis. The health care provider has prescribed ceftriaxone 60 mg/kg/day in three divided doses. The child weighs 33 lb. The dose ordered is the safe dose. How many milligrams should the nurse administer in each dose? Record your answer using a whole number
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The child weighs 33 lbs, or 15 kg (33/2.2). The prescribed dose is 60 mg/kg/day, so 15 kg * 60 mg/kg = 900 mg/day. Divided into three doses, 900 mg / 3 = 300 mg per dose.
Extract:
A child who has sepsis and a critically low platelet count
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is admitting a child who has sepsis and a critically low platelet count. Based on this information which of the following precautions should the nurse initiate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Bleeding precautions should be initiated due to the critically low platelet count, as this increases the risk of bleeding complications.
Extract:
A 17-year-old female client who has severe acne
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is providing teaching to a 17-year-old female client who has severe acne about the use of isotretinoin. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client is the priority to report immediately to the provider?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Feelings of isolation and depression are serious side effects associated with isotretinoin and should be reported immediately due to the risk of self-harm or suicidal thoughts.
Extract:
A child who has sickle cell anemia after an acute crisis episode
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is discharging a child who has sickle cell anemia after an acute crisis episode. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Offering fluids frequently helps prevent dehydration, which can trigger a sickle cell crisis, making it an essential part of discharge teaching.
Extract:
A 3-day-old newborn infant who presented with abdominal distension and failure to pass meconium
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is discussing the treatment of congenital aganglionic megacolon (Hirschsprungs disease) with the caregivers of a 3-day-old newborn infant who presented with abdominal distension and failure to pass meconium. Which statement is the best explanation of the treatment for this diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The primary treatment for Hirschsprung's disease is surgical intervention to remove the affected bowel segment.