ATI RN
ATI RN Pharmacology 2023 II Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving ondansetron IV. Which of the following findings is an indication that the ondansetron is effective?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreased nausea. Ondansetron is an antiemetic medication used to treat nausea and vomiting.
Therefore, a decrease in nausea indicates the effectiveness of ondansetron. Absence of peripheral neuropathy (
A) is not directly related to the action of ondansetron. Increased urinary output (
B) is not a common effect of ondansetron. Reduced dizziness (
C) may not necessarily indicate the effectiveness of ondansetron specifically for nausea.
Therefore, the best indicator of ondansetron's effectiveness in this scenario is a decrease in nausea.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is taking rifampin. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor for as an adverse effect of the medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Jaundice. Rifampin is known to cause hepatotoxicity, which can present as jaundice due to liver dysfunction. The nurse should monitor for signs of liver damage such as yellowing of the skin and eyes. Blurred vision (
A) is not a common adverse effect of rifampin. Irregular heart rate (
C) is also not associated with rifampin use. Constipation (
D) is not a typical adverse effect of rifampin. Monitoring for jaundice is crucial in clients taking rifampin to detect liver damage early.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is reviewing the list of current medications for a client who has a new prescription for nitroglycerin. The nurse should identify that which of the following client medications is contraindicated for use with nitroglycerin?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Sildenafil. Nitroglycerin and sildenafil both lower blood pressure. When taken together, they can cause a significant drop in blood pressure leading to hypotension, dizziness, and fainting. It is essential to avoid combining drugs that have similar effects on blood pressure to prevent adverse reactions. Gemfibrozil, lansoprazole, and diazepam do not have significant interactions with nitroglycerin.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of warfarin to a client. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse review prior to administration?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: PT. The nurse should review the PT (Prothrombin Time) before administering warfarin because warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting clotting factors. PT measures the extrinsic and common pathways of the coagulation cascade, which are affected by warfarin. Elevated PT indicates a risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. The other choices are incorrect because:
A) PTT assesses the intrinsic pathway of coagulation, not directly affected by warfarin.
C)
Total iron-binding capacity is unrelated to warfarin therapy.
D) WBC (White Blood Cell count) assesses immune function, not relevant for warfarin administration.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing fluid volume deficit?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Elevated hematocrit level. When a client is experiencing fluid volume deficit, there is a decrease in circulating blood volume, leading to hemoconcentration. This results in an elevated hematocrit level due to the increased concentration of red blood cells in the blood. A weight gain (
B) would be indicative of fluid volume excess rather than deficit. Shortness of breath (
C) and distended neck veins (
D) are signs of fluid volume overload, not deficit.