ATI RN
ATI Medical Surgical 2 Final 2024 Assessment Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a left radical mastectomy. Which of the following behaviors should alert the nurse to the possibility that the client is having difficulty adjusting to the loss of her breast?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Refusing to look at the dressing or surgical incision may indicate psychological distress and difficulty in accepting the physical changes following a mastectomy. This behavior can be a sign of avoidance and a potential struggle with body image and the emotional impact of breast loss.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is providing teaching to a client about the manifestations of uterine prolapse. Which of the following statements by the client should indicate to the nurse a need for further teaching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Feces in the vagina is not a direct symptom of uterine prolapse but may relate to a rectocele, indicating a need for further teaching.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has multiple long bone fractures caused by a motor-vehicle crash that happened 24 hours ago. The client tells the nurse he is short of breath and is experiencing chest pain. The nurse should assess the client further for which of the following potential complications?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Fat embolism syndrome is a serious complication following long bone fractures, where fat globules enter the bloodstream and cause respiratory distress and chest pain.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for several clients at a community clinic. Which of the following clients is most at risk for developing type 2 diabetes mellitus?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A 40-year-old client with hypoglycemia is at higher risk for type 2 diabetes, as hypoglycemia can indicate insulin resistance or pre-diabetes, especially with age-related risk factors. Autoimmune disorders are linked to type 1 diabetes, lack of sleep is a weaker predictor, and never giving birth is not a risk factor.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client who reports shoulder pain. Which of the following findings by the nurse indicates a rotator cuff injury?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The inability to abduct the arm at the shoulder is a classic sign of a rotator cuff injury. The rotator cuff is responsible for stabilizing the shoulder joint and aiding in various movements, including abduction. When there is a tear or significant weakness in the rotator cuff muscles, especially the supraspinatus muscle, the patient may be unable to lift the arm away from the body or may experience pain while doing so. A negative drop arm test would actually indicate that there is no rotator cuff injury. The drop arm test is performed by asking the patient to fully abduct the arm to 90 degrees and then slowly lower it. If the patient can control the motion and lower the arm smoothly, the test is negative. A positive drop arm test, where the patient cannot control the descent of the arm, would suggest a rotator cuff tear. While an alteration in the contour of the joint may indicate some form of shoulder pathology, it is not specific to a rotator cuff injury. Changes in the contour could be due to various conditions, including dislocation, arthritis, or other musculoskeletal disorders. A positive Tinel's sign is used to diagnose nerve compression or nerve damage, not rotator cuff injuries. It is performed by tapping over the course of a nerve to elicit a tingling sensation or pain in the distribution of the nerve. This sign is commonly associated with conditions like carpal tunnel syndrome.