ATI RN
ATI RN Pharmacology 2023 II Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis of the liver and is receiving spironolactone. Which of the following findings indicates that the client is responding to the treatment?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreased ascites. Spironolactone is a diuretic commonly used in cirrhosis to reduce fluid retention, specifically ascites. As the medication helps the body eliminate excess fluid, a decrease in ascites would indicate that the client is responding to the treatment. Increased appetite (
A) and increased energy (
C) are not directly related to the medication or the treatment of cirrhosis. Decreased jaundice (
B) is more indicative of improved liver function rather than the specific response to spironolactone.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing manifestations of acute cocaine toxicity. Which of the following medication prescriptions should the nurse anticipate administering?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Diazepam. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine that can help manage the agitation, anxiety, and seizures associated with acute cocaine toxicity by acting as a sedative and anticonvulsant. Aspirin (
A) is not indicated for this condition. Sodium bicarbonate (
B) is used for tricyclic antidepressant overdose, not cocaine toxicity. Naloxone (
D) is used for opioid overdose, not cocaine toxicity.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving high-dose metoclopramide. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tardive dyskinesia. Metoclopramide is associated with this adverse effect, characterized by involuntary movements of the face, tongue, and extremities. The nurse should monitor for signs such as lip smacking, tongue protrusion, and rapid eye movements. Oral candidiasis (
A) is not directly related to metoclopramide. Black stools (
B) could indicate gastrointestinal bleeding but is not a common adverse effect of metoclopramide. Dry cough (
C) is not a typical side effect.
Therefore, the nurse should focus on monitoring for tardive dyskinesia (
D) when administering high-dose metoclopramide.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer cefazolin 1 g in 0.9% sodium chloride 100 mL via intermittent IV bolus over 30 minutes. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 15 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
Correct Answer: 50
Rationale:
To calculate the IV infusion rate in drops per minute (gtt/min), we can use the formula: (Volume to be infused in mL x Drop factor) / Time in minutes. In this case, the volume to be infused is 100 mL, drop factor is 15 gtt/mL, and the time is 30 minutes. Plugging these values into the formula: (100 mL x 15 gtt/mL) / 30 minutes = 1500 gtt / 30 minutes = 50 gtt/min.
Therefore, the correct answer is 50 gtt/min. This rate ensures the cefazolin is administered over the desired 30-minute timeframe. Other choices are incorrect because they do not align with the calculated rate based on the given parameters.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is assessing an adult client who is receiving morphine via continuous IV infusion. The nurse should identify that which of the following is the priority finding?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Respirations deep at a rate of 10/min. This is the priority finding because it indicates potential opioid overdose, which can lead to respiratory depression, a life-threatening complication. Shallow, slow respirations at a rate of 10/min suggest the client's respiratory drive is compromised, requiring immediate intervention to prevent respiratory arrest.
A: Vomiting 30 mL of fluid is concerning but not immediately life-threatening compared to respiratory depression.
B: Blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg may be expected with morphine infusion but is not as critical as respiratory depression.
D: Urinary output of 20 mL within 1 hr may indicate decreased renal perfusion but is not as urgent as addressing respiratory compromise.