ATI RN
ATI RN Pharmacology 2023 retake 1 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has a gonococcal infection and has been prescribed an IM injection of ceftriaxone. The client refuses the medication because they are afraid of needles. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct response is D: I will discuss other treatment options with your provider. This is the best response because it acknowledges the client's fear of needles and shows empathy. The nurse is addressing the client's concerns and is offering to explore alternative treatment options that may be more acceptable to the client. This response promotes client autonomy and collaboration in decision-making, ensuring that the client receives appropriate care while respecting their preferences.
Choice A is incorrect as it minimizes the client's fear without addressing the underlying issue.
Choice B is incorrect as it uses coercion and does not consider the client's feelings.
Choice C is incorrect as it uses a scare tactic to pressure the client into compliance, which is not therapeutic.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of warfarin to a client. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse review prior to administration?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: PT. The prothrombin time (PT) measures the time it takes for blood to clot, which is crucial for monitoring warfarin therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that works by inhibiting the clotting factors that rely on vitamin K, thus prolonging the PT. Reviewing the PT prior to administering warfarin ensures that the client's blood is clotting appropriately and helps prevent potential bleeding complications.
Incorrect Answers:
A: PTT - Partial thromboplastin time measures the intrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade and is not specific to warfarin therapy.
C: WBC - White blood cell count is unrelated to warfarin administration.
D:
Total iron-binding capacity - TIBC assesses the body's ability to bind and transport iron, not relevant to warfarin therapy.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer pain medication to a postoperative client who had a total knee replacement and reports pain as 5 on a scale of 0 to 10. Which of the following PRN medications should the nurse plan to administer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ketorolac 15 mg IV. Ketorolac is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAI
D) that is effective for moderate to severe pain, like that experienced post knee replacement surgery. It provides potent analgesic effects by inhibiting the production of prostaglandins, which are mediators of pain and inflammation. The IV route ensures rapid onset of action, making it suitable for immediate pain relief. Morphine (
A) is a strong opioid used for severe pain but has more side effects and potential for dependency. Amitriptyline (
B) is a tricyclic antidepressant used for neuropathic pain, not acute postoperative pain. Acetaminophen (
D) is a mild analgesic suitable for mild pain relief, not sufficient for postoperative pain.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving ondansetron IV. Which of the following findings is an indication that the ondansetron is effective?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreased nausea. Ondansetron is an antiemetic medication used to treat nausea and vomiting.
Therefore, a decrease in nausea indicates that the medication is effective in managing the client's symptoms. Increased urinary output (
A) is not a direct effect of ondansetron and is not a reliable indicator of its effectiveness. Reduced dizziness (
B) and absence of peripheral neuropathy (
C) are not specific to the action of ondansetron and do not directly relate to its effectiveness in treating nausea.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who develops an anaphylactic reaction to IV antibiotic administration. After assessing the client's respiratory status and stopping the medication infusion, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Administer epinephrine IM. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis due to its rapid onset of action and ability to reverse severe allergic reactions. The nurse should administer it promptly to prevent further complications. Elevating the legs (
B) is not recommended as it does not address the anaphylactic reaction. Giving diphenhydramine (
A) may help with itching and hives but is not as effective or rapid as epinephrine. Replacing the infusion (
C) is important but not the immediate priority in managing anaphylaxis.