ATI RN
ATI RN Pharmacology 2023 retake 1 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer filgrastim 5 mcg/kg/day subcutaneous to a client who weighs 143 lb. How many mcg should the nurse administer per day?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
To calculate the dose of filgrastim for the client weighing 143 lb, first convert the weight to kg (143 lb รท 2.2 = 65 kg).
Then, multiply the weight in kg by the dose (5 mcg/kg/day) to get the total dose per day (65 kg x 5 mcg/kg/day = 325 mcg/day).
Therefore, the nurse should administer 325 mcg per day. The correct answer is A (324) as it is the closest value to the calculated dose of 325 mcg/day. Other choices are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving high-dose metalopramide. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tardive dyskinesia. Metoclopramide is associated with the development of tardive dyskinesia, a serious movement disorder characterized by involuntary repetitive movements of the face and limbs. This adverse effect is more common with long-term use or high doses of metoclopramide. Monitoring for signs such as facial grimacing, tongue protrusion, and repetitive chewing movements is crucial.
A: Black stools are associated with gastrointestinal bleeding, not typically caused by metoclopramide.
B: Dry cough is not a common adverse effect of metoclopramide.
C: Oral candidiasis is a fungal infection in the mouth, not directly linked to metoclopramide use.
Summarily, the correct answer, D, is related to a known adverse effect of metoclopramide, while the other options are not commonly associated with this medication.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has septic shock and is receiving dopamine by continuous IV infusion. Which of the following findings indicates that the nurse should increase the rate of infusion?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypotension. In septic shock, patients often experience severe hypotension due to systemic vasodilation. Dopamine, a vasopressor, is used to increase blood pressure by constricting blood vessels.
Therefore, if the patient's blood pressure remains low despite receiving dopamine, it indicates that the current infusion rate is not sufficient. Extravasation (
A) is a potential complication of IV therapy but does not directly indicate the need to increase the infusion rate. Headache (
C) and chest pain (
D) are common symptoms in septic shock but are not specific indicators for adjusting dopamine infusion rate.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who will receive total parenteral nutrition (TPN) at home. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Instruct the client to weigh themselves daily and record their weight. Daily weight monitoring is crucial for clients receiving TPN to assess fluid balance and nutritional status. Weight changes can indicate fluid retention or dehydration. It helps in adjusting TPN formulations accurately.
A: Incorrect. Central line dressings should be changed as per facility protocol, not necessarily every 24 hours.
C: Incorrect. TPN containers need to be changed every 24 hours to prevent bacterial growth.
D: Incorrect. The rate of TPN infusion should not be altered without healthcare provider's recommendation to avoid complications.
E, F, G: N/A
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving diazepam for moderate (conscious) sedation. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to assess for an adverse reaction to the medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor the client's oxygen saturation. When a client is receiving diazepam for conscious sedation, respiratory depression is a potential adverse reaction due to the medication's central nervous system depressant effects. Monitoring the client's oxygen saturation helps the nurse assess for any signs of respiratory compromise. This is crucial as early detection can prevent further complications.
Other choices are incorrect because:
A: Monitoring for seizure activity is not a common adverse reaction to diazepam in the context of conscious sedation.
B: Checking urinary output is unrelated to assessing adverse reactions to diazepam.
D: Auscultating bowel sounds is not relevant in assessing adverse reactions to diazepam for conscious sedation.