Questions 73

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

ATI RN Medical Surgical 2023 Questions

Extract:


Question 1 of 5

A nurse is assessing a client who has increased intracranial pressure. The nurse should recognize that which of the following is the first sign of deteriorating neurological status?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Altered consciousness (e.g., confusion) is the earliest sign of worsening intracranial pressure, reflecting cerebral dysfunction before respirations, posturing, or pupil changes, which indicate later stages.

Question 2 of 5

A nurse in the emergency department is evaluating a young adult client for bacterial meningitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take as part of the focused assessment?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Nuchal rigidity (neck stiffness) is a key sign of meningitis due to meningeal irritation, assessed by head elevation. Other tests evaluate reflexes or neurological signs unrelated to meningitis.

Question 3 of 5

A charge nurse receives a call from the house supervisor requesting room assignments for four new clients. Based on the admission diagnoses, which of the following clients requires a private room?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Fever, night sweats, and cough suggest possible tuberculosis, requiring airborne isolation in a private room. Ketoacidosis, fractures, and pneumonia don't typically require private rooms unless contagious.

Question 4 of 5

A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is planning care for a client who has dementia and a history of wandering. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to implement?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A bed alarm alerts staff to wandering attempts, enhancing safety for a dementia client. Double rooms increase confusion, excessive stimulation causes agitation, and chemical restraints are a last resort.

Question 5 of 5

A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who is receiving treatment for genital herpes. Which of the following statements by the client indicates effectiveness of the teaching?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Antiviral therapy for genital herpes (e.g., acyclovir) is typically taken for a defined period, like 3 weeks for initial outbreaks, indicating understanding. Natural condoms don't prevent transmission, antibiotics are ineffective, and lesions resolve faster.

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