ATI RN
ATI Med Surg Exam 9 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse collects health history from a 65 year old client. Which of the following risk factors in the client's history puts the client at the highest risk for embolic stroke?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Atrial fibrillation increases the risk of embolic stroke by causing blood pooling in the heart, leading to clot formation that can travel to the brain and block an artery.
Question 2 of 5
A client returns to the clinic for follow-up treatment after a skin biopsy of a suspicious lesion performed 1 week ago. The biopsy report indicates that the lesion is a melanoma. The nurse understands that melanoma has which characteristics? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A,B,D
Rationale: Melanomas are asymmetrical, dark brown or black, have a high risk of metastasis, and are often in sun-exposed areas due to UV damage. Warm, red skin suggests inflammation, and pain is uncommon unless the lesion is ulcerated.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who is brought to the emergency room with burn injuries. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a deep partial-thickness burn?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Deep partial-thickness burns involve the epidermis and most of the dermis, presenting as pink with blisters and severe pain.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is monitoring a client admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of appendicitis. The client reports a sudden increase in abdominal pain and begins to vomit. On assessment, the nurse notes that the abdomen is distended and bowel sounds are diminished. Which is the best first action the nurse should take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Reason: Requesting the charge nurse put the client on the surgery schedule is not the best first action, as it does not address the urgency of the situation. The client may have a perforated appendix, which is a life-threatening complication that requires immediate intervention. Reason: Documenting the WBC count from the morning labs is not the best first action, as it does not address the client's current condition. The WBC count may be elevated due to inflammation or infection, but it does not indicate the severity of the problem. Reason: This is the correct choice. Notifying the healthcare provider is the best first action, as it alerts them to the possibility of a perforated appendix and allows them to order appropriate tests and treatments. Reason: Providing an antiemetic is not the best first action, as it does not address the underlying cause of the vomiting. The client may have peritonitis, which is inflammation of the abdominal cavity due to leakage of intestinal contents. An antiemetic may mask this symptom and delay diagnosis and treatment.
Question 5 of 5
The client inquires what the positive result from the potassium hydroxide (KOH) test indicates. Which of the following is an accurate response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A positive KOH test indicates a fungal infection, as it reveals fungal elements under a microscope.