ATI RN
ATI Nproo 2100 Exam Unit 3 Fundamentals Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A client is admitted to the emergency room with a respiratory rate of 7/min. Arterial blood gases (ABG) reveal the following values. Which of the following is an appropriate analysis of the ABGs? pH 7.22, PaCO2 68 mm Hg, Base excess -2, PaO2 78 mm Hg, Saturation 80%, Bicarbonate 26 mEq/L
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Low pH (7.22) and high PaCO2 (68 mm Hg) with normal bicarbonate indicate respiratory acidosis due to hypoventilation. Other options do not match.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing anaphylactic shock in response to the administration of penicillin. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer first?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylactic shock, reversing allergic reactions. Other medications are secondary or unrelated.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is teaching a client who has septic shock about the development of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: DIC involves abnormal coagulation, consuming fibrinogen and platelets, causing clots and bleeding. Platelet counts drop, heparin is not lifelong, and DIC is not genetic.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following signs is most commonly associated with respiratory alkalosis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rapid, shallow breathing and panic are typical of respiratory alkalosis due to hyperventilation. Other signs are not characteristic.
Question 5 of 5
A 70-year-old male receiving high-dose IV furosemide for heart failure complains of ringing in his ears and dizziness. His current labs show normal potassium and sodium levels. What is the nurse's most appropriate intervention?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Ringing in ears and dizziness suggest furosemide ototoxicity. Stopping the infusion and notifying the provider is critical. Other actions risk worsening the condition.