Questions 127

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ATI n200 Med Surg Exam Questions

Extract:


Question 1 of 5

The nurse is caring for a patient who returned 4 hours ago from having a lumbar laminectomy. Which change in assessment requires further action?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Clear yellow drainage from the Foley catheter is a normal finding postoperatively. Not having a bowel movement immediately after surgery is not unusual due to anesthesia and postoperative medications. Bowel function should be monitored. Numbness in both feet could indicate nerve injury, spinal cord compression, or other complications such as hematoma formation, and requires immediate attention. Pain is expected after surgery, but if the pain level is not well-controlled, it should be addressed. A pain score of 7/10 requires further assessment, but it is not as urgent as bilateral numbness.

Question 2 of 5

The nurse is transcribing a medication order and schedules dosing for 1000, 1400 and 1800. Which medication order is consistent with this schedule?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Propranolol 10 mg PO twice a day would not fit this schedule of three doses. Morphine sulfate is ordered every 4 hours as needed, not on a fixed schedule. Metoprolol is scheduled three times a day (1000, 1400, 1800), fitting the described schedule. Cephalexin 500 mg q 4 hours does not match the schedule as it requires dosing every 4 hours, not at the specified times.

Question 3 of 5

The nurse is assessing the client and notes fine crackles throughout the lungs bilaterally. This assessment finding is often associated with:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Fine crackles (
A) are common in bronchitis due to mucus. Pneumothorax (
B), asthma (
C), and emphysema (
D) have different sounds.

Question 4 of 5

The nurse is aware that a common adverse effect of anesthetic agents experienced by the client is:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Malignant hyperthermia (
C) is a rare but serious anesthetic reaction. Tachycardia (
A) and decreased respirations (
B) are less severe, and hypokalemia (
D) is unrelated.

Question 5 of 5

A client with osteoarthritis of the left knee will undergo an injection of corticosteroids into the joint. The nurse notes that the primary reason for this injection is to:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: While corticosteroids can reduce inflammation and pain, they do not directly target edema. The primary purpose of corticosteroid injections into a joint affected by osteoarthritis is to reduce inflammation and pain, providing relief from the symptoms. Corticosteroids do not prevent ankylosis (joint stiffness), which may occur with long-term osteoarthritis. Corticosteroids do not repair cartilage but can help alleviate symptoms related to cartilage degradation.

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