ATI RN
ATI Maternal Newborn Exam 4 Questions
Extract:
A pregnant woman at 37 weeks of gestation has had ruptured membranes for 26 hours. A cesarean section is performed for failure to progress. The fetal heart rate (FHR) before birth is 180 beats per minute with limited variability. At birth, the newborn has Apgar scores of 6 and 7 at 1 and 5 minutes and is noted to be pale and tachypneic.
Question 1 of 5
Based on the maternal history, what is the most likely cause of this newborn's distress?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sepsis is the most likely cause due to the prolonged rupture of membranes, which increases infection risk, leading to symptoms like high FHR, low Apgar scores, pallor, and tachypnea. Hypoglycemia doesn't explain these symptoms; phrenic nerve injury is rare and unilateral; meconium aspiration typically involves low FHR and cyanosis.
Extract:
A client who is pregnant.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who is pregnant for preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client requires further evaluation for this disorder?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Elevated blood pressure is a key preeclampsia indicator, requiring further evaluation. Increased urine output, joint pain, and discharge are normal or unrelated.
Extract:
A client who experienced abruptio placentae. The nurse observes petechiae and bleeding around the IV access site.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse on the obstetric unit is caring for a client who experienced abruptio placentae. The nurse observes petechiae and bleeding around the IV access site. The nurse should recognize that this client is at risk for which of the following complications?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Abruptio placentae can trigger DIC, indicated by petechiae and bleeding, due to widespread clotting and consumption of coagulation factors.
Extract:
A client who gave birth 2 hr ago. The nurse notes that the client's blood pressure is 60/50 mm Hg.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who gave birth 2 hr ago. The nurse notes that the client's blood pressure is 60/50 mm Hg. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Evaluating uterine firmness identifies atony, the likely cause of postpartum hemorrhage causing hypotension, guiding immediate intervention.
Extract:
A client.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer clindamycin 900 mg by intermittent IV bolus over 30 min. Available is clindamycin 900 mg in 100 mL dextrose 5% (D5W). The nurse should set the IV pump to deliver how many mL/hr?
Correct Answer: 200
Rationale: 100 mL over 0.5 hours equals 200 mL/hr, the correct pump setting with no trailing zero.