ATI RN
ATI Advanced Med Surg Final Exam 0924 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is teaching a client who has gout about dietary recommendations. The nurse should teach the client that which of the following beverages can trigger an attack?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Alcohol, especially beer and spirits, can trigger gout attacks by increasing the level of uric acid in the blood. Alcohol consumption should be limited or avoided to reduce the risk of gout flare-ups.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who reports heart palpitations. An ECG confirms the client is experiencing ventricular tachycardia (VT). The nurse should anticipate the need for taking which of the following actions?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Defibrillation is used for pulseless ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation to restore a normal heart rhythm.
Extract:
Nurses' Notes
Day 1:
0900:
Client admitted from emergency department with hemoptysis, dull chest pain, increasing fatigue, anorexia, nausea, chest tightness, and 3.2 kg (7 lb) weight loss in 2 weeks. Heart rate regular, lung sounds with crackles in bilateral upper lobes. No edema. Airborne precautions initiated upon admission.
Day 2:
1100:
Client reports shortness of breath, nausea, and fatigue. Crackles auscultated bilaterally throughout lung fields. Productive cough, with thick, blood-streaked sputum. Bowel sounds active, no edema.
Day 3:
0900:
Client reports some improvement in dyspnea. Client coughing up thick, yellow, blood-streaked sputum. Crackles auscultated in bilateral upper lobes of lungs. Sclera noted to be yellow. Client’s weight is 0.7 kg (1.6 lb) less than at admission. Encouraged to increase intake of oral fluids. Client reports urine appears reddish orange in color.
Medical history
Client has no chronic illnesses. Traveled out of the country 2 months ago.
Vital Signs
Day 1:
Temperature 38.6°C (101.4°F)
Heart rate 96/min
Respiratory rate 26/min
Blood pressure 158/88 mm Hg
Oxygen saturation 91% on room air
Day 2:
Temperature 38.4°C (101.2°F)
Heart rate 88/min
Respiratory rate 24/min
Blood pressure 152/82 mm Hg
Oxygen saturation 92% on 02 at 4L/min via nasal cannula
Day 3:
Temperature 37.8°C (100.1°F)
Heart rate 82/min
Respiratory rate 22/min
Blood pressure 130/78 mm Hg
Oxygen saturation 96% on 02 at 4L/min via nasal cannula
Provider prescriptions
Day 1:
Purified protein derivative 0.1 mL intradermal to right forearm
Isoniazid 300 mg PO daily
Rifampin 600 mg PO daily
Acetaminophen 500 mg 1-2 tablets PO every 4 to 6 hr PRN fever, pain
Diagnostic Results
Day 1
ALT 36 SI/L (4-36 SI/L)
AST 35 units/L (0-35 units/L)
Alkaline phosphatase 118 units/L (30-120 units/L)
Chest x-ray caseation with inflammation throughout upper lobes
Day 3:
Mantoux Test: 12 mm induration (negative, reaction less than 5 mm) ALT 38 SI-36 SI/L)
AST 36 units/L (0-35 units/L)
Alkaline phosphatase 129 units/L (30-120 units/L)
Question 3 of 5
A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is caring for a newly admitted client with a diagnosis of R/O tuberculosis. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Yellow sclera indicates jaundice, which could be a sign of liver dysfunction, especially concerning given the client is on isoniazid and rifampin, which can cause hepatotoxicity.
Extract:
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is preparing a client who is scheduled to undergo a paracentesis. Into which of the following positions should the nurse assist the client for this procedure?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: High-Fowler's position helps pool the ascitic fluid in the lower abdomen, making it easier to access and drain during the procedure.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has an implantable cardioverter/defibrillator (ICD). Which of the following information should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The client should hold his cell phone on the side opposite the ICD to avoid interference with the ICD's functioning.