ATI RN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2023 With NGN Questions and Correct Answers Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who had a bilateral orchiectomy. The nurse should instruct the client to expect which of the following symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hot flashes. After a bilateral orchiectomy (removal of both testicles), there is a sudden decrease in testosterone levels, leading to hormonal imbalances. This can result in hot flashes, which are commonly experienced by men undergoing androgen deprivation therapy. Hypoglycemia (
A) is not typically associated with orchiectomy. Increased libido (
B) and increased muscle mass (
D) are actually expected to decrease due to the decrease in testosterone levels post-orchiectomy.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving morphine for pain and has a respiratory rate of 8/min and a blood pressure of 80/50 mmHg. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Naloxone. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that reverses the effects of opioids like morphine, which can cause respiratory depression leading to bradypnea (slow breathing) and hypotension. In this case, the client's low respiratory rate and blood pressure indicate opioid overdose. Administering naloxone can help reverse the respiratory depression and stabilize the client's breathing and blood pressure.
Promethazine (
B) is an antihistamine used for nausea and vomiting, not for opioid overdose. Acetylcysteine (
C) is a mucolytic agent used for acetaminophen overdose. Flumazenil (
D) is a benzodiazepine antagonist, not indicated for opioid overdose.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure. Which of the following findings indicate potential improvement?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Potassium 4.3 mEq/L (3.5 to 5 mEq/L). In heart failure exacerbation, potassium levels can be affected due to medications or fluid shifts. A potassium level within the normal range indicates electrolyte balance, which is crucial for cardiac function. Hemoglobin (
Choice
A) and hematocrit (
Choice
B) are indicators of oxygen-carrying capacity and volume status, not directly related to heart failure improvement. White blood cell count (
Choice
C) is not specific to heart failure exacerbation.
Therefore, the correct answer is D as it reflects a positive change in electrolyte balance, essential for cardiac function.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse on an intensive care unit is planning care for a client who has increased intracranial pressure following a head injury. Which of the following IV medications should the nurse plan to administer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mannitol. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that helps reduce cerebral edema by drawing water out of brain tissue. This helps decrease intracranial pressure in clients with head injuries. Propranolol (
A) is a beta-blocker used for hypertension, not specifically for intracranial pressure. Dobutamine (
B) is a beta-adrenergic agonist used for cardiac support, not for intracranial pressure. Chlorpromazine (
D) is an antipsychotic medication and does not address intracranial pressure. In summary, Mannitol is the appropriate choice for managing increased intracranial pressure due to its osmotic diuretic properties.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is 3 hours postoperative following a total knee arthroplasty. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent venous thromboembolism?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Correct Answer: A. Encourage the client to perform circumduction of the foot.
Rationale:
1. Circumduction of the foot promotes blood flow in the lower extremity, preventing stasis and reducing the risk of venous thromboembolism.
2. This action helps in maintaining muscle tone and preventing blood clots in the postoperative period.
3. Encouraging mobility also prevents complications like deep vein thrombosis.
Summary of Incorrect
Choices:
B. Keeping the client's knees in a flexed position may restrict blood flow and increase the risk of thromboembolism.
C. Massaging the client's legs can dislodge blood clots and lead to embolism.
D. Limiting fluid intake can increase the risk of dehydration and thickening of blood, which can contribute to thrombus formation.