ATI RN
ATI Nproo 2100 Exam Unit 3 Fundamentals Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is monitoring a client who received epinephrine for angioedema after a first dose of losartan. Which of the following data indicates a therapeutic response to the epinephrine?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Unlabored respirations indicate improved airway patency, a key effect of epinephrine. Other options are not specific to angioedema treatment.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for shock. Which of the following findings is the earliest indicator that this complication is developing?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Increased respiratory rate is an early compensatory sign of shock to improve oxygenation. Anuria, hypotension, and altered consciousness occur later.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has hypovolemic shock. Which of the following should the nurse recognize as an expected finding?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Oliguria occurs in hypovolemic shock due to reduced renal perfusion. Flushing, bradypnea, and hypertension are not typical; instead, cool skin, tachypnea, and hypotension are expected.
Question 4 of 5
A patient's ABG shows: pH 7.32, PaCO2 50 mmHg, HCO3 24 mEq/L. What is the correct diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Low pH (7.32) and high PaCO2 (50 mmHg) with normal HCO3 indicate respiratory acidosis. Other diagnoses do not match.
Question 5 of 5
Which class of antiretroviral drugs targets the stage of the HIV lifecycle by inhibiting RNA from forming DNA?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: NRTIs inhibit reverse transcriptase, preventing viral RNA from forming DNA. Fusion inhibitors block entry, integrase inhibitors prevent DNA integration, and protease inhibitors affect viral maturation.