ATI RN
ATI N200 Mental Health Exam 2 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is meeting with a 15-year-old client who has ADHD. The client and their parent state they would like their medications stopped due to the unpleasant side effects. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Exploring side effects fosters trust and informs next steps.
Choice B risks withdrawal symptoms.
Choice C delays assessment.
Choice D dismisses concerns potentially reducing adherence.
Question 2 of 5
A client is to receive a continuous Heparin infusion at 500 units per hour. Pharmacy supplies Heparin in a concentration of 25000 units per 250 mL of NSS. Calculate the rate at which the nurse should set the infusion pump.
Correct Answer: 5
Rationale:
Step 1: Concentration = 25 000 units ÷ 250 mL = 100 units/mL.
Step 2: Rate = 500 units/hour ÷ 100 units/mL = 5 mL/hour. The infusion pump should be set to 5 mL/hour.
Question 3 of 5
A fifteen-year-old was referred to the adolescent mental health clinic after being arrested for prostitution. The client's parents reported that they have run away several times and are abusive towards them. The nurse should anticipate that the diagnosis will be:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Conduct Disorder involves persistent behavior violating societal norms such as running away and illegal activities like prostitution matching the scenario.
Choice A (depression) may cause irritability but not typically severe antisocial behavior.
Choice B (OD
D) involves defiance but not the extent of rule-breaking seen here.
Choice D (AS
D) affects social interaction but not typically with aggressive rule-violating behaviors.
Question 4 of 5
A client with alcohol use disorder is at risk for Wernicke’s encephalopathy. Which intervention is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Thiamine deficiency causes Wernicke’s encephalopathy so high-dose thiamine is critical.
Choice B is irrelevant to prevention.
Choice C does not address thiamine needs.
Choice D is important but secondary to thiamine administration.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer fluoxetine 40 mg PO daily. The amount available is fluoxetine 20 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer?
Correct Answer: 2
Rationale:
To calculate: Required dose (40 mg) ÷ Available concentration (20 mg/mL) = 40 ÷ 20 = 2 mL. The answer is a whole number requiring no rounding.