ATI RN
ATI Capstone Week 11 Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is instructing clients in the community about relationship development. The nurse should explain that, according to Erikson, establishing relationships with commitment is a primary task of which of the following stages of psychosocial development?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Intimacy vs. isolation. In Erikson's psychosocial theory, this stage occurs in young adulthood, where individuals focus on developing intimate relationships based on mutual trust and commitment. This stage is characterized by the desire to form strong, lasting bonds with others.
Choice A, generativity vs. stagnation, focuses on the middle adulthood stage where individuals are concerned with contributing to society and nurturing the next generation.
Choice B, identity vs. role diffusion, pertains to adolescence and the struggle to establish a sense of self and direction.
Choice C, trust vs. mistrust, is the first stage in infancy where the focus is on developing a sense of trust in the world.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a 12-month-old toddler who is hospitalized and confined to a room with contact precautions in place. Which of the following toys would be best for the nurse to recommend in order to meet the developmental needs of the client?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Large building blocks. At 12 months, toddlers are in the sensorimotor stage of development, where they explore objects through touch and manipulation. Large building blocks allow the toddler to practice fine motor skills, hand-eye coordination, and spatial awareness. They also promote creativity and problem-solving. Crayons and coloring books (choice
A) are more suitable for older children who have developed better fine motor skills. Modeling clay (choice
B) may pose a choking hazard for a 12-month-old. Hanging crib toys (choice
C) are more appropriate for infants and may not provide enough stimulation for a toddler.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse in labor and delivery is caring for a client. Following delivery of the placenta, the nurse examines the umbilical cord. Which of the following vessels should the nurse expect to observe in the umbilical cord?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Two arteries and one vein. This is because the umbilical cord typically contains two arteries (carrying deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta) and one vein (carrying oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus). This configuration is essential for fetal circulation and nutrient exchange during pregnancy.
Choice A (One artery and one vein) is incorrect as it does not reflect the typical composition of the umbilical cord.
Choice B (Two veins and one artery) is incorrect because the umbilical cord does not contain two veins; it contains one vein and two arteries.
Choice D (Two arteries and two veins) is incorrect as it describes an atypical structure of the umbilical cord.
In summary, the correct answer, C, is supported by the physiological function of the umbilical cord in fetal circulation, making it the most appropriate choice compared to the other options.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is assessing a toddler who has acute nephrotic syndrome. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Facial edema. In acute nephrotic syndrome, fluid retention leads to facial edema. This is a significant finding that the nurse should report to the provider as it indicates worsening kidney function. Poor appetite (
A), yellow nasal discharge (
B), and irritability (
C) are common symptoms in toddlers and are not directly related to acute nephrotic syndrome.
Therefore, they are not as urgent to report.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is calculating the output of a client at the end of the shift. The nurse notes the following: client voided 400 mL at 1100 and 350 mL at 1430. The closed chest drainage system was previously marked at 155 mL and is now at 175 mL. The NG tube has 575 mL in drainage container, and 25 mL is emptied out of the Jackson-Pratt drainage tube. How many mL should the nurse record in the medical record as the client's output?
Correct Answer: 1370
Rationale: The correct answer is 1370 mL.
To calculate the client's output, we add the voided urine (400 mL + 350 mL = 750 mL), chest drainage system (175 mL - 155 mL = 20 mL), NG tube drainage (575 mL), and Jackson-Pratt drainage tube (25 mL).
Total output = 750 mL (urine) + 20 mL (chest drainage) + 575 mL (NG tube) + 25 mL (JP tube) = 1370 mL. This total represents all the fluids eliminated by the client during the shift. Other choices are incorrect as they either do not include all the relevant outputs or are calculated incorrectly.