ATI RN
ATI Capstone Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is instructing a client who has GERD about positions that can help minimize the effects of reflux during sleep. Which of the following statements indicates to the nurse that the client understands the instructions?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "I will lie on my left side to sleep at night." This position helps prevent acid from flowing back into the esophagus due to the anatomical positioning of the stomach and esophagus. When lying on the left side, the stomach is positioned below the esophagus, reducing the likelihood of reflux.
Incorrect choices:
B: Lying on the right side can worsen reflux symptoms as it allows stomach acid to flow back into the esophagus more easily.
C: Sleeping on the back with the head flat may not be as effective in preventing reflux compared to the left side position.
D: Sleeping on the stomach with the head flat can exacerbate reflux symptoms by putting pressure on the stomach and pushing acid back up into the esophagus.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client. Select the 5 findings that can cause delayed wound healing.
Correct Answer: B,C,E,F,G
Rationale: The correct answer choices (B, C, E, F, G) can cause delayed wound healing due to specific reasons.
B: Prealbumin level reflects protein status, crucial for wound healing.
C: Diabetes mellitus impairs circulation and immune response, affecting healing.
E: Wound infection introduces pathogens, prolonging inflammation and delaying healing.
F: Decreased pedal perfusion reduces oxygen and nutrient delivery to the wound site.
G: Elevated fasting blood glucose hinders immune cell function and collagen synthesis.
Incorrect choices (A,
D) are not directly linked to wound healing delays. Potassium level (
A) mainly affects cardiac and muscle function, and hyperlipidemia (
D) primarily impacts cardiovascular health, not wound healing directly.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer ziprasidone 10 mg IM every 6 hr. Available is ziprasidone 20 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
Correct Answer: 0.5
Rationale: The correct answer is 0.5 mL.
To calculate this, first determine the total dose needed per administration (10 mg).
Then, divide the total dose by the concentration of the medication (20 mg/mL) to find the volume to administer per dose (10 mg ÷ 20 mg/mL = 0.5 mL). This ensures the patient receives the correct amount of medication. Other choices are incorrect because they do not accurately calculate the volume needed for the specified dose. For example, choosing a higher volume would result in overdosing the patient, while choosing a lower volume would underdose the patient. The correct calculation is essential to ensure the patient's safety and therapeutic effectiveness.
Question 4 of 5
A client seeks medical attention for intermittent signs and symptoms that suggest a diagnosis of Raynaud’s disease. The nurse should assess the trigger of these signs/symptoms by asking which?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Does drinking coffee or ingesting chocolate seem related to the episodes? This question is relevant because caffeine and chocolate are known triggers for Raynaud's disease due to their vasoconstrictive properties. By asking about these specific triggers, the nurse can gather important information to help identify potential causes of the client's symptoms.
Choice B is incorrect because exposure to heat typically alleviates symptoms of Raynaud's disease rather than causing them.
Choice C is irrelevant as Raynaud's symptoms typically occur when the individual is exposed to cold or experiencing stress, not while asleep.
Choice D is also incorrect as injuries limiting activity levels are not directly related to Raynaud's disease triggers.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is planning care for a client who has a halo fixation device. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Monitor the client for an elevated temperature. This is important because an elevated temperature could indicate infection, which is a significant concern when a client has a halo fixation device. Removing the vest daily (
Choice
A) is not recommended as it can compromise the stability of the device. Checking that the halo jacket is snug (
Choice
B) is important, but monitoring for an elevated temperature is a higher priority. Providing range of motion to the client's neck (
Choice
C) is contraindicated with a halo device as it can cause serious injury.