ATI RN
ATI RN Pharmacology 2023 V Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is developing a teaching plan for an older adult client who has a new prescription for insulin glargine. Which of the following expected outcomes should the nurse include in the plan?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: The client will wear his reading glasses when drawing up a dose of insulin glargine. This is crucial to ensure accurate dosing and prevent medication errors, especially for older adults who may have visual impairments. Wearing reading glasses can help the client see the markings on the syringe clearly, ensuring they draw up the correct dose.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect:
B: Taking an additional dose of insulin glargine prior to exercise is not appropriate without proper guidance from a healthcare provider as it can lead to hypoglycemia.
C: Administering insulin glargine before each meal is not correct as insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin and is usually administered once daily at the same time each day.
D: Using the deltoid muscle as an injection site is not recommended for insulin glargine as it is typically injected subcutaneously into the abdomen, thigh, or upper arm for consistent absorption.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has received oxycodone. The nurse notes that the client's respiratory rate is 8/min. The nurse should identify that which of the following is the pathophysiology for the client's respiratory rate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Correct
Answer: B. Oxycodone causes central nervous system depression.
Rationale: Oxycodone is an opioid analgesic that acts on the central nervous system (CNS) to relieve pain. One common side effect of opioids like oxycodone is respiratory depression, where the CNS is suppressed, leading to a decrease in respiratory rate. In this case, the client's respiratory rate of 8/min is indicative of CNS depression caused by the oxycodone.
Summary of other choices:
A: Oxycodone does not block sodium channels to suspend nerve conduction.
C: Oxycodone does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis.
D: Oxycodone does not promote vasodilation of cranial arteries.
Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect in the context of the client's respiratory rate being 8/min.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who develops an anaphylactic reaction to IV antibiotic administration. After assessing the client's respiratory status and stopping the medication infusion, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer epinephrine IM. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis as it helps reverse severe allergic reactions by constricting blood vessels, improving breathing, and increasing heart rate. Administering epinephrine promptly can prevent progression to life-threatening complications.
A: Giving diphenhydramine may help with itching and hives, but it does not address the immediate life-threatening symptoms of anaphylaxis.
C: Replacing the infusion with saline does not address the client's immediate need for treatment of anaphylaxis.
D: Elevating the client's legs and feet does not address the airway compromise and cardiovascular collapse seen in anaphylaxis.
In summary, administering epinephrine is crucial in managing an anaphylactic reaction due to its rapid onset of action and life-saving effects.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing fluid volume deficit?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Elevated hematocrit level. In fluid volume deficit, there is a decrease in blood volume, leading to a concentration of red blood cells, resulting in an elevated hematocrit level. Weight gain (
A) is indicative of fluid retention, not deficit. Distended neck veins (
C) are a sign of fluid overload, not deficit. Shortness of breath (
D) is a symptom of heart failure but not specific to fluid volume status.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is monitoring a client who received a local injection of lidocaine. Which of the following responses should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Client reports of numbness in the area. Lidocaine is a local anesthetic that blocks nerve impulses, resulting in numbness in the area where it was injected. This is an expected response as it indicates the medication is working as intended. Ventricular fibrillation (
A) is a serious cardiac arrhythmia unrelated to local lidocaine injection. Tachycardia (
B) is an increased heart rate and not a typical response to lidocaine. Client reports of increased pain in the area (
C) would be unexpected and might indicate a problem with the injection or the medication.