ATI RN
ATI RN Pharmacology 2023 V Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has received oxycodone. The nurse notes that the client's respiratory rate is 8/min. The nurse should identify that which of the following is the pathophysiology for the client's respiratory rate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Correct
Answer: B. Oxycodone causes central nervous system depression.
Rationale: Oxycodone is an opioid analgesic that acts on the central nervous system (CNS) to relieve pain. One common side effect of opioids like oxycodone is respiratory depression, where the CNS is suppressed, leading to a decrease in respiratory rate. In this case, the client's respiratory rate of 8/min is indicative of CNS depression caused by the oxycodone.
Summary of other choices:
A: Oxycodone does not block sodium channels to suspend nerve conduction.
C: Oxycodone does not inhibit prostaglandin synthesis.
D: Oxycodone does not promote vasodilation of cranial arteries.
Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect in the context of the client's respiratory rate being 8/min.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who develops an anaphylactic reaction to IV antibiotic administration. After assessing the client's respiratory status and stopping the medication infusion, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer epinephrine IM. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis as it helps reverse severe allergic reactions by constricting blood vessels, improving breathing, and increasing heart rate. Administering epinephrine promptly can prevent progression to life-threatening complications.
A: Giving diphenhydramine may help with itching and hives, but it does not address the immediate life-threatening symptoms of anaphylaxis.
C: Replacing the infusion with saline does not address the client's immediate need for treatment of anaphylaxis.
D: Elevating the client's legs and feet does not address the airway compromise and cardiovascular collapse seen in anaphylaxis.
In summary, administering epinephrine is crucial in managing an anaphylactic reaction due to its rapid onset of action and life-saving effects.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing fluid volume deficit?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Elevated hematocrit level. In fluid volume deficit, there is a decrease in blood volume, leading to a concentration of red blood cells, resulting in an elevated hematocrit level. Weight gain (
A) is indicative of fluid retention, not deficit. Distended neck veins (
C) are a sign of fluid overload, not deficit. Shortness of breath (
D) is a symptom of heart failure but not specific to fluid volume status.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is monitoring a client who received a local injection of lidocaine. Which of the following responses should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Client reports of numbness in the area. Lidocaine is a local anesthetic that blocks nerve impulses, resulting in numbness in the area where it was injected. This is an expected response as it indicates the medication is working as intended. Ventricular fibrillation (
A) is a serious cardiac arrhythmia unrelated to local lidocaine injection. Tachycardia (
B) is an increased heart rate and not a typical response to lidocaine. Client reports of increased pain in the area (
C) would be unexpected and might indicate a problem with the injection or the medication.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer cefazolin 1 g in 0.9% sodium chloride 100 ml via intermittent IV bolus over 30 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 15 gtt/ml. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
Correct Answer: 50
Rationale: The correct answer is 50 gtt/min.
To calculate the infusion rate in drops per minute (gtt/min), we use the formula: (Volume to be infused in ml × drop factor) ÷ time in minutes. In this case, (100 ml × 15 gtt/ml) ÷ 30 min = 1500 gtt ÷ 30 min = 50 gtt/min. This ensures the correct administration rate for cefazolin. Other choices are incorrect because they do not follow the correct calculation method or do not result in the appropriate infusion rate.