ATI RN
ATI Capstone Exam 2 Final Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is developing a care plan for a client who has schizophrenia and is taking chlorpromazine. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Weigh the client daily. This is important because chlorpromazine, an antipsychotic medication, can cause weight gain as a side effect. Daily weighing can help monitor for any significant changes in weight, which may indicate potential metabolic side effects. Monitoring for signs of bleeding (
B) is not directly related to chlorpromazine use. Respiratory monitoring (
C) is not a priority for this medication. Administering an antacid (
D) does not directly relate to the client's safety or medication effectiveness.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse on a medical unit is planning care for an older adult client who takes several medications. Which of the following prescribed medications places the client at risk for orthostatic hypotension?
Correct Answer: A,D,E
Rationale: The correct answer is A, D, and E. Lisinopril (
A) is an ACE inhibitor known to cause orthostatic hypotension. Furosemide (
D) is a loop diuretic that can lead to fluid loss and subsequent hypotension. Doxazosin (E) is an alpha-blocker that can cause vasodilation, leading to orthostatic hypotension in older adults. Clopidogrel (
B) is an antiplatelet agent and Atorvastatin (
C) is a statin, which are not typically associated with orthostatic hypotension in older adults.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has a suspected diagnosis of Guillain-Barré syndrome (G85). Which of the following questions should the nurse ask the client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should ask about recent influenza infection (
Choice
A) because Guillain-Barré syndrome is often preceded by a viral illness, such as influenza. This information is crucial for diagnosis and treatment. Travel history (
Choice
B) is less relevant as the cause is more likely viral. Chronic alcohol abuse (
Choice
C) and multivitamin use (
Choice
D) are not directly related to Guillain-Barré syndrome.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a 10-year-old boy who has a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus and is eager to return to school and participate in social events. The mother tells the nurse she is afraid to let him take part in physical activities at school. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct response is C: "Tell me more about how you are feeling about your son’s activities." This response demonstrates active listening and empathy, allowing the mother to express her concerns and fears regarding her son's activities. By encouraging open communication, the nurse can address the mother's specific worries and provide appropriate education and support.
Choice A does not address the mother's concerns directly, choice B is dismissive of the mother's feelings, and choice D suggests an extreme solution without exploring the mother's perspective. Overall, choice C is the most therapeutic as it focuses on understanding the mother's emotions and can help build trust and collaboration between the nurse and the mother in managing the child's diabetes.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of aplastic anemia. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Aplastic anemia results from decreased bone marrow production of RBCs. In aplastic anemia, the bone marrow fails to produce enough red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. This leads to pancytopenia, a reduction in all blood cell types. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the pathophysiology of aplastic anemia. Increased rate of RBC destruction (
A) is seen in hemolytic anemias, decreased intake of iron (
B) is associated with iron-deficiency anemia, and inability to absorb vitamin B12 (
D) is characteristic of pernicious anemia, not aplastic anemia.