ATI RN
ATI SP 250 Exam 3 Med Surg Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has asthma and is taking fluticasone. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: This is because fluticasone is an inhaled corticosteroid that suppresses the immune system and increases the risk of fungal infections in the mouth and throat. The nurse should instruct the client to rinse their mouth with water after each use of fluticasone and to report any signs of oral thrush.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has burns to his face, ears, and eyelids. The nurse should identify which of the following is the priority finding to report to the provider?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Difficulty swallowing is the priority finding to report to the provider.
Rationale: This is because difficulty swallowing can indicate airway edema, which can compromise breathing and oxygenation. The nurse should monitor the client's respiratory status and administer oxygen as prescribed. The other findings are also important, but not as urgent as airway obstruction.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is planning a presentation about HIV for a church-based group. Which of the following information about HIV transmission should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This is because HIV is a virus that infects certain cells of the immune system, such as CD4 cells or T cells. HIV can be found in blood, semen, vaginal fluid, breast milk, and other body fluids that contain blood. HIV can be transmitted through sexual contact, sharing needles or syringes, mother-to-child transmission during pregnancy or breastfeeding, or occupational exposure to blood or body fluids.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has basal cell carcinoma on her nose. The nurse should expect which of the following findings?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Basal cell carcinoma is the most common type of skin cancer and usually occurs on sun-exposed areas of the skin. It is slow-growing and rarely metastasizes. It appears as a small, translucent papule with rolled borders that may ulcerate and bleed.
Extract:
Diagnostic Results
January:
• Laboratory: CD4 cell count 200 cells/mm³ (Normal range: 600-1500 cells/mm³)
June:
• Laboratory: CD4 cell count 90 cells/mm³ (Normal range: 600-1500 cells/mm³)
• Chest x-ray: Bilateral white infiltrates consistent with pneumonia
Question 5 of 5
A nurse in a community health clinic is caring for a client who has a history of HIV. For each of the following assessment findings for the client, identify if the finding is consistent with HIV stage I or HIV stage III (AIDS). Each finding may support more than one disease process.
| Options | HIV stage I | HIV stage III |
|---|---|---|
| CD4 cell count 200 cells/mm3 (600-1500 cells/mm3) | ||
| Weight changes | ||
| Chest x-ray showing bilateral white infiltrates consistent with pneumonia | ||
| Skin condition | ||
| Latest CD4 cell count |
Correct Answer: A,C,E
Rationale: CD4 cell count 200 cells/mm³ is consistent with HIV stage II or III, as it indicates significant immunosuppression. Chest x-ray showing bilateral white infiltrates consistent with pneumonia is indicative of HIV stage III (AIDS), as opportunistic infections like pneumonia are common. Latest CD4 cell count (90 cells/mm³) is consistent with HIV stage III (AIDS), as it is below 200 cells/mm³, a threshold for AIDS diagnosis.