ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Exam B Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Decreased fetal movement is a concerning finding that may indicate fetal distress or compromise, requiring immediate reporting to the provider for further evaluation, such as a nonstress testisbn or biophysical profile.
Choice B is wrong because a blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg is within the normal range for pregnancy and does not require reporting.
Choice C is wrong because a fundal height of 36 cm at 36 weeks is normal, as fundal height in centimeters typically corresponds to gestational age (±2 cm).
Choice D is wrong because mild ankle edema is a common, benign finding in late pregnancy due to increased fluid retention and pressure from the gravid uterus, and it does not typically require reporting unless accompanied by other symptoms like sudden swelling or signs of preeclampsia.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is at 8 weeks of gestation about the importance of folic acid during pregnancy. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Folic acid is essential for DNA synthesis and cell division, and adequate intake (400-800 mcg daily) before and during early pregnancy helps prevent neural tube defects, such as spina bifida and anencephaly, in the fetus.
Choice B is wrong because folic acid does not directly increase red blood cell production; it supports hematopoiesis indirectly by aiding DNA synthesis, but this is not its primary role in pregnancy.
Choice C is wrong because folic acid does not specifically promote uterine growth; uterine growth is driven by hormonal changes and fetal development.
Choice D is wrong because there is no direct evidence that folic acid reduces the risk of preterm labor.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for naltrexone for opioid use disorder. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Monitoring for signs of liver dysfunction (e.g., jaundice, abdominal pain) is critical, as naltrexone, an opioid antagonist, can cause hepatotoxicity, requiring regular liver function tests.
Choice A is incorrect because naltrexone should not be started until the client is opioid-free for 7-10 days to avoid precipitating withdrawal.
Choice B is incorrect because naltrexone reduces cravings over time, not immediately.
Choice C is incorrect because naltrexone can be taken with or without food; a high-fat meal is not necessary.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a 2-year-old toddler. Which of the following food choices should the nurse recommend to promote independence in eating?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Choice A is wrong because popcorn is a choking hazard for toddlers. It is hard, crunchy, and can get stuck in the airway. The NHS advises not to give whole nuts and peanuts to children under 5 years old.
Choice B is wrong because grapes are also a choking hazard for toddlers. They are round, slippery, and can block the airway. The NHS recommends cutting grapes into quarters before giving them to young children. Banana slices are soft, easy to chew, and can be picked up by the toddler's fingers, which promotes independence in eating. According to the CDC, foods that toddlers should avoid include: Added sugars and no-calorie sweeteners, such as sugar-sweetened and diet drinks, high-salt foods, such as canned foods, processed meats, frozen dinners, fast food, and junk food, unpasteurized juice, milk, yogurt, or cheese, and foods that may cause choking, such as hard or crunchy foods, sticky foods, stringy cheese, and foods that are not cut up into small pieces.
Choice D is wrong because hot dogs are high in salt and can cause choking if not cut up into small pieces. The Extension warns against giving hot dogs to young toddlers.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a bowel resection and has a new colostomy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Applying a skin barrier around the stoma protects the peristomal skin from irritation and breakdown caused by contact with stool, a common issue with a new colostomy.
Choice B is incorrect because the colostomy bag should be emptied when it is one-third to one-half full to prevent leakage and skin irritation, not when full.
Choice C is incorrect because the colostomy appliance is typically changed every 3-7 days, not daily, unless there is leakage or skin irritation.
Choice D is incorrect because petroleum jelly is not recommended, as it can interfere with the adhesion of the colostomy appliance; a skin barrier or protective paste is preferred.