ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Exam B Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is developing a plan of care for a newborn whose mother tested positive for heroin during pregnancy. The newborn is experiencing neonatal abstinence syndrome. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Choice A is wrong because swaddling the newborn with his legs extended can increase muscle tension and discomfort. Swaddling should be done with the legs flexed and hips abducted to prevent hip dysplasia.
Choice B is wrong because administering naloxone to the newborn can cause severe withdrawal symptoms and respiratory depression. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that reverses the effects of opioids, but it is not recommended for newborns with NAS unless they have life-threatening respiratory depression.
Choice C is wrong because maintaining eye contact with the newborn during feedings can overstimulate the newborn and cause agitation. Eye contact should be avoided or limited during feedings for newborns with NAS. This is because neonatal abstinence syndrome (NAS) is a condition that affects newborns who are exposed to opioids or other addictive substances in the womb. These substances can cause withdrawal symptoms in the newborns, such as excessive crying, tremors, vomiting, diarrhea, and seizures. Minimizing noise and other stimuli can help calm the newborn and reduce stress.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has a new diagnosis of bipolar disorder. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect during a manic episode?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Euphoria and rapid speech are hallmark symptoms of a manic episode in bipolar disorder, reflecting elevated mood and increased psychomotor activity.
Choice A is incorrect because mania typically causes a decreased need for sleep, with clients feeling energized despite little rest.
Choice C is incorrect because weight loss, not weight gain, is more common during mania due to increased activity and reduced appetite.
Choice D is incorrect because difficulty concentrating is more associated with depression or mixed episodes; mania often involves heightened focus, though it may be disorganized.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for buspirone for generalized anxiety disorder. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Monitoring for dizziness or drowsiness is important with buspirone, a non-benzodiazepine anxiolytic, as these are common side effects that may affect safety or require dose adjustment.
Choice A is incorrect because buspirone is taken regularly (2-3 times daily), not as needed, to achieve steady-state anxiety control.
Choice B is incorrect because buspirone takes 2-4 weeks to provide significant anxiety relief, not immediate relief.
Choice D is incorrect because buspirone should not be discontinued abruptly, even if symptoms resolve, to avoid withdrawal or relapse; it requires provider guidance.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is planning teaching for a client and their family about home oxygen therapy. Which of the following information should the nurse plan to include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Choice A is wrong because synthetic fabrics can generate static electricity, which can also cause sparks and ignite oxygen. The client's bedding should be made of cotton or wool, which are natural fabrics that do not produce static electricity.
Choice B is wrong because petroleum jelly is a petroleum-based product that can react with oxygen and cause skin irritation or burns. The client should use water-based moisturizers to soothe the mucous membranes.
Choice C is wrong because alcohol-based cleaning products are also flammable and can cause fires or explosions when exposed to oxygen. The client should use mild soap and water to clean the equipment, and follow the manufacturer's instructions for maintenance. Nail polish remover contains acetone, which is a flammable substance that can ignite in the presence of oxygen. Using nail polish remover around the client can increase the risk of fire and burn injuries.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has multiple sclerosis. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Nystagmus (involuntary eye movements) is a common manifestation of multiple sclerosis due to demyelination affecting the optic nerve or cerebellar pathways, impacting vision and coordination.
Choice B is incorrect because multiple sclerosis typically causes hyperactive deep tendon reflexes due to upper motor neuron involvement, not hypoactive reflexes.
Choice C is incorrect because persistent nausea is not a hallmark symptom of multiple sclerosis; it may occur secondary to medications or other conditions.
Choice D is incorrect because fever is not typical unless the client has an infection or is experiencing a pseudoexacerbation triggered by heat.