ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Exam B Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has schizophrenia and is receiving haloperidol. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tremors and muscle stiffness are signs of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), a serious side effect of haloperidol, a typical antipsychotic, requiring immediate reporting for possible dose adjustment or antiparkinsonian medication.
Choice A is incorrect because dry mouth is a common, less severe side effect that can be managed with hydration or sugar-free gum.
Choice C is incorrect because weight loss is not typical; haloperidol may cause weight gain.
Choice D is incorrect because sedation is an expected side effect and does not require immediate reporting unless excessive.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is collecting data from a client who has a history of bipolar disorder. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect during a manic episode?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rapid speech is typical in a manic episode of bipolar disorder. Hypersomnia, weight gain, and flat affect are more associated with depression.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus and reports feeling shaky and sweaty. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Checking the client's blood glucose level is the first action to take, as shakiness and sweating suggest hypoglycemia (blood glucose typically <70 mg/dL) in a client with type 1 diabetes, and the glucose level will guide treatment (e.g., administering 15 g of fast-acting carbohydrates).
Choice A is wrong because administering insulin would worsen hypoglycemia; insulin is used to lower blood glucose, not treat low levels.
Choice C is wrong because a high-protein snack is not appropriate for treating hypoglycemia; fast-acting carbohydrates (e.g., juice, glucose tabs) are needed first to rapidly raise blood glucose.
Choice D is wrong because encouraging rest does not address the urgent need to correct hypoglycemia, which can progress to confusion, seizures, or unconsciousness if untreated.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is assisting with the care of a client who is postoperative following a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Swelling in the affected leg may indicate deep-vein thrombosis, requiring provider notification. Pain, mild fever, and normal heart rate are expected.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse manager is updating protocols for the use of belt restraints. Which of the following guidelines should the nurse manager include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Documenting the client's condition every 15 minutes is a crucial part of using restraints. Regular documentation helps ensure the safety and well-being of the client, as it allows for continuous monitoring and timely intervention if necessary. Requesting a PRN (as needed) restraint prescription for clients who are aggressive is not a recommended practice. Restraints should only be used as a last resort and must be based on a thorough assessment of the client's condition, not solely on their behavior. Attaching the restraint to the bed's side rails is not recommended. This can increase the risk of injury to the client. Restraints should be attached to a part of the bed frame that moves with the client, such as the head or footboard. While it's important to regularly check and adjust restraints for comfort and safety, there's no specific guideline that restraints should be removed every 4 hours. The frequency of removal and repositioning will depend on the individual client's condition and needs.