ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Exam B Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy for breast cancer. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A WBC count of 2,500/mm3 is below the normal range (5,000-10,000/mm3) and indicates leukopenia, a common side effect of chemotherapy that increases infection risk, requiring immediate reporting to the provider for potential interventions like growth factors or antibiotics.
Choice B is wrong because a hemoglobin of 12 g/dL is within the normal range for females (12-16 g/dL) and does not require reporting.
Choice C is wrong because a platelet count of 150,000/mm3 is within the normal range (150,000-400,000/mm3) and does not indicate thrombocytopenia.
Choice D is wrong because a potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L is within the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L) and does not require reporting.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving magnesium sulfate IV for preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 10/min is below the normal range (12-20/min) and indicates potential magnesium sulfate toxicity, which can lead to respiratory depression or arrest. This finding should be reported immediately to the provider, and the infusion may need to be stopped.
Choice B is wrong because a blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg, while elevated, is not unexpected in preeclampsia and does not indicate immediate toxicity; it should be monitored, but it is not the priority.
Choice C is wrong because a urine output of 40 mL/hr is within the acceptable range (at least 30 mL/hr) for a client receiving magnesium sulfate and does not indicate renal compromise.
Choice D is wrong because deep tendon reflexes of 2+ are normal and do not suggest magnesium toxicity, which would present with absent or diminished reflexes.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is assisting with the care of a client who is postoperative following a hip arthroplasty. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Swelling in the affected leg may indicate deep-vein thrombosis, requiring provider notification. Pain, mild fever, and normal heart rate are expected.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has a pressure ulcer. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Full-thickness tissue loss with visible muscle is characteristic of a stage 3 or 4 pressure ulcer, indicating severe tissue damage common in advanced pressure ulcers.
Choice A is incorrect because erythema and intact skin describe a stage 1 pressure ulcer, not a fully developed one.
Choice C is incorrect because blanchable redness over a bony prominence indicates tissue at risk but not yet a pressure ulcer.
Choice D is incorrect because eschar may be present in unstageable pressure ulcers, but full-thickness loss with visible muscle is a more specific finding for stage 3 or 4.
Question 5 of 5
A school nurse is teaching a parent about absence seizures. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Absence seizures are brief, sudden lapses of consciousness that usually last a few seconds. They are more common in children than in adults.
Choice B is wrong because absence seizures typically last less than 15 seconds, not 30 to 60 seconds.
Choice C is wrong because absence seizures have a sudden onset, not a gradual one.
Choice D is wrong because absence seizures do not have an aura prior to onset. An aura is a warning sign that some people experience before a seizure, such as a strange feeling, smell, or vision.