ATI RN
ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn Questions
Extract:
Client gave birth 1 week ago, states: 'I don't know what's wrong. I love my baby, but I feel so let down and I seem to cry for no reason.'
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who gave birth 1 week ago. The client states, 'I don't know what's wrong. I love my baby, but I feel so let down and I seem to cry for no reason.' The nurse should identify that the client is experiencing which of the following emotional responses to birth?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Postpartum blues, characterized by mood swings, crying spells, and irritability, typically resolve within two weeks postpartum and are linked to hormonal changes.
Extract:
Client reports intermittent dark brown vaginal discharge for the past three days.
Question 2 of 5
A client reports an intermittent dark brown vaginal discharge for the past three days. What should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Molar pregnancy often manifests as intermittent dark brown vaginal discharge due to trophoblastic tissue expulsion. It warrants assessment as it correlates with hCG elevation and abnormal placental development.
Extract:
Newborn born two hours ago at 36 weeks gestation, findings: Bruising noted over occiput, yellowish hue on sclera and skin blanching, transcutaneous bilirubin level 12.5 mg/dL, phototherapy initiated.
Question 3 of 5
A newborn born two hours ago at 36 weeks gestation has noted findings. Which findings are consistent with neonatal jaundice?
Correct Answer: B,C,D
Rationale: Yellowish sclera and blanching skin (
B), transcutaneous bilirubin level of 12.5 mg/dL (
C), and phototherapy initiation (
D) indicate neonatal jaundice from elevated bilirubin levels due to immature hepatic conjugation, requiring monitoring and treatment to prevent kernicterus.
Extract:
Client who is postpartum, has a deep-vein thrombosis, and is receiving heparin therapy via subcutaneous injections.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is postpartum, has a deep-vein thrombosis, and is receiving heparin therapy via subcutaneous injections. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The abdomen is the preferred site for subcutaneous heparin injections due to its fatty tissue, which minimizes risks of intramuscular bleeding and ensures consistent drug absorption.
Extract:
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is providing teaching to a group of clients about risk factors for ovarian cancer. Which of the following risk factors should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A,C,E
Rationale: Nulliparity (
A) increases ovarian cancer risk by prolonging ovulation periods. Postmenopausal estrogen (
C) elevates risk by stimulating cell proliferation. History of breast cancer (E) correlates with increased risk due to shared genetic mutations like BRCA1/2.