Correct Answer: A

Rationale: A non-tender, protruding abdomen is a normal finding for a 2-year-old toddler. This is due to the immature development of the abdominal muscles and the relatively large size of the liver and kidneys in relation to the rest of the body.
Choice B is wrong because the head circumference should be equal to or less than the chest circumference by age 2. A head circumference that exceeds the chest circumference could indicate hydrocephalus or other neurological problems.
Choice C is wrong because the fontanels, or soft spots on the skull, should be closed by the age of 18 months. Palpable fontanels could indicate dehydration, malnutrition, or congenital disorders.
Choice D is wrong because the natural loss of deciduous teeth, or baby teeth, usually begins around age 6. Premature loss of teeth could indicate dental caries, trauma, or endocrine disorders.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Reporting signs of infection is critical with methotrexate due to immunosuppression. Antacids are unrelated, pain relief is not immediate, and vitamin C is not specific.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Reporting signs of infection is critical with prednisone due to immunosuppression. It's taken with food, weight gain is expected, and stopping abruptly risks adrenal crisis.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Checking the client's blood glucose level is the first action to take, as shakiness and sweating suggest hypoglycemia (blood glucose typically <70 mg/dL) in a client with type 1 diabetes, and the glucose level will guide treatment (e.g., administering 15 g of fast-acting carbohydrates).
Choice A is wrong because administering insulin would worsen hypoglycemia; insulin is used to lower blood glucose, not treat low levels.
Choice C is wrong because a high-protein snack is not appropriate for treating hypoglycemia; fast-acting carbohydrates (e.g., juice, glucose tabs) are needed first to rapidly raise blood glucose.
Choice D is wrong because encouraging rest does not address the urgent need to correct hypoglycemia, which can progress to confusion, seizures, or unconsciousness if untreated.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Stool positive for occult blood indicates potential gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious adverse effect of enoxaparin (a low-molecular-weight heparin), requiring immediate reporting to the provider.
Choice A is incorrect because a hemoglobin of 10 g/dL is low but not critical unless accompanied by signs of active bleeding; it should be monitored.
Choice B is incorrect because a platelet count of 100,000/mm3 is low but not immediately concerning unless trending downward or associated with bleeding.
Choice D is incorrect because INR is not used to monitor enoxaparin; it is relevant for warfarin therapy, and 1.2 is within normal limits.