ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Exam B Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a new prescription for insulin detemir. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Storing insulin detemir at room temperature for up to 42 days maintains potency. Shaking is incorrect, it's not taken before meals, and it's clear.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for sumatriptan for migraines. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Taking sumatriptan at the onset of migraine symptoms is critical, as it is most effective when used early to abort the migraine by constricting cranial blood vessels and blocking pain pathways.
Choice B is incorrect because sumatriptan can be taken with or without food; food does not significantly affect its absorption.
Choice C is incorrect because drowsiness is not a common side effect; sumatriptan may cause dizziness or tingling, but alertness is usually unaffected.
Choice D is incorrect because sumatriptan is used for acute migraine treatment, not daily for prevention, which requires other medications like propranolol.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for combined oral contraceptives. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Taking combined oral contraceptives at the same time each day helps maintain consistent hormone levels and maximizes effectiveness in preventing pregnancy.
Choice B is wrong because a backup method of contraception is recommended for the first 7 days only if the pills are started after the first day of the menstrual cycle; if started on the first day, no backup is needed.
Choice C is wrong because headaches are a common side effect, but stopping the pills abruptly is not advised; the client should consult the provider if headaches are severe or persistent.
Choice D is wrong because taking an extra pill after missing a dose can increase the risk of side effects; the correct action depends on the timing and number of missed pills, typically involving taking the missed pill as soon as remembered and using a backup method.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has multiple sclerosis. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Nystagmus (involuntary eye movements) is a common manifestation of multiple sclerosis due to demyelination affecting the optic nerve or cerebellar pathways, impacting vision and coordination.
Choice B is incorrect because multiple sclerosis typically causes hyperactive deep tendon reflexes due to upper motor neuron involvement, not hypoactive reflexes.
Choice C is incorrect because persistent nausea is not a hallmark symptom of multiple sclerosis; it may occur secondary to medications or other conditions.
Choice D is incorrect because fever is not typical unless the client has an infection or is experiencing a pseudoexacerbation triggered by heat.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for furosemide for edema. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Monitoring potassium is critical for clients taking furosemide, a loop diuretic that increases potassium excretion, potentially causing hypokalemia, which can lead to arrhythmias.
Choice A is incorrect because, while furosemide can cause hyponatremia, potassium is the primary electrolyte of concern due to its cardiac implications.
Choice B is incorrect because hemoglobin is not directly affected by furosemide; it is monitored for other conditions like anemia.
Choice C is incorrect because calcium levels are not significantly impacted by furosemide compared to potassium.