ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive 2023 With NGN 180 Questions And Answers Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A charge nurse is monitoring a newly licensed nurse who is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the procedure?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Correct
Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because hanging a new bag of TPN and IV tubing every 24 hours helps to prevent bacterial growth and contamination, ensuring the client's safety. TPN solutions are prone to bacterial contamination if left hanging for too long, so changing the bag and tubing every 24 hours is crucial.
Summary of incorrect choices:
B: Obtaining the client's weight every other day is important for monitoring the effectiveness of TPN therapy, but it does not specifically address the procedure for administering TPN.
C: Monitoring the client's blood glucose level every eight hours is essential for managing TPN therapy, but it does not directly relate to the procedure of administering TPN.
D: Increasing the rate of TPN infusion without proper authorization or assessment can lead to serious complications such as hyperglycemia or fluid overload, making this choice incorrect.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is in active labor and note the FHR baseline has been 100/min for the past 15 min. The nurse should identify which of the following conditions as a possible cause of fetal bradycardia?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fetal anemia. Fetal bradycardia (baseline <110/min) can be caused by inadequate oxygen delivery to the fetus, such as in fetal anemia. Anemia decreases the blood's ability to carry oxygen, leading to fetal distress. Maternal fever (
A) can increase the fetal heart rate, not decrease it. Maternal hypoglycemia (
C) can cause fetal distress, but typically presents with fetal tachycardia. Chorioamnionitis (
D) can cause maternal fever and tachycardia, but is less likely to directly affect the fetal heart rate. Other choices are not provided.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has historic personality disorder. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: self-centered behavior. Individuals with historic personality disorder often display self-centered behavior as they prioritize their own needs and desires above others. This is due to their excessive need for admiration and attention. The other options are incorrect because: A: Suspicious of others is more characteristic of paranoid personality disorder. B: Callousness is more indicative of antisocial personality disorder. D: Violates others' rights is a feature of antisocial personality disorder as well.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse in emergency department is caring for a three-year old child who has suspected epiglottitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action is A: Prepare to assist with intubation. Epiglottitis is a medical emergency where the airway can become severely compromised due to swelling of the epiglottis. Intubation may be necessary to secure the airway and ensure adequate oxygenation. Prompt intervention is crucial to prevent respiratory distress and potential death. Obtaining a throat culture (
B) may delay essential treatment. Suctioning the oropharynx (
C) can stimulate the epiglottis and worsen the obstruction. A cool mist tent (
D) does not address the immediate need for securing the airway.
Extract:
A nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant. Nurses'
Notes
Day 1, 0900:
Client is at 31 weeks of gestation and presents with a severe headache unrelieved by
acetaminophen. Client also reports urinary frequency and decreased fetal movement.
Client is a G3 P2 with one preterm birth.
Vital Signs Day
1, 0900:
Temperature (oral) 36.9°C (98,4° F) Heart
rate 72/min
Respiratory rate 16/min BP
162/112 mm Hg
Oxygen saturation 97% on room air
Diagnostic Results Day 1,
1000:
Appearance cloudy (clear) Color
yellow (yellow)
pH 5.9 (4.6 to 8)
Protein 3+ (negative)
Specific gravity 1.013 (1.005 to 1.03) Leukocyte esterase
negative (negative)
Nitrites negative (negative) Ketones
negative (negative) Crystals negative
(negative) Casts negative (negative)
Glucose trace (negative) WBC 5 (0
t0 4)
WBC casts none (none)
RBC 1 (less than or equal to 2) RBC
casts none (none)
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is reviewing the client's medical record. Select 4 findings that indicate a potential prenatal complication.
Correct Answer: A,C,F,G
Rationale: The correct answers (A, C, F, G) indicate potential prenatal complications. Urine protein (
A) suggests preeclampsia, a serious condition characterized by high blood pressure (
C) and proteinuria. Headaches (F) can also be a sign of preeclampsia. Gravida/parity (G) provides important obstetric history, identifying high-risk pregnancies. Fetal activity (
B) and respiratory rate (E) are not specific to prenatal complications. Urine ketones (
D) may indicate dehydration but not necessarily a prenatal complication.