ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology 2023 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer heparin subcutaneously to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take to minimize bleeding following the injection?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Grasp skin between thumb and forefinger throughout the injection. This technique helps to stabilize the tissue around the injection site, reducing the risk of bleeding. By holding the skin taut, the needle can be inserted more accurately, minimizing trauma to the blood vessels and tissues. This method also helps prevent the medication from leaking out of the injection site, ensuring proper absorption.
For the other choices:
A: Gently massaging the site following the injection can increase bleeding by disrupting the clotting process.
C: The Z-track method is used for intramuscular injections, not subcutaneous, and is not necessary to minimize bleeding in this case.
D: Aspirating the syringe is not required for subcutaneous injections and does not directly impact bleeding following the injection.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client in the post-anesthesia unit who is experiencing malignant hyperthermia. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse anticipate administering?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dantrolene. Dantrolene is the drug of choice for treating malignant hyperthermia, a rare but life-threatening condition triggered by certain medications used during anesthesia. Dantrolene works by inhibiting the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum in skeletal muscle cells, which helps to reduce muscle contractions and hyperthermia. Verapamil (
A) is a calcium channel blocker used for different purposes. Naloxone (
B) is an opioid antagonist used for opioid overdoses. Cefazolin (
C) is an antibiotic used for treating infections. In summary, Dantrolene is the appropriate choice for managing malignant hyperthermia due to its mechanism of action in preventing further muscle contraction and hyperthermia.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has received propofol during a colonoscopy. The nurse should monitor for which of the following as an adverse effect of the medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decrease in respiratory rate. Propofol is a sedative-hypnotic medication that can cause respiratory depression as a common adverse effect. This is due to its central nervous system depressant effects. The nurse should monitor the client closely for signs of decreased respiratory rate, such as shallow breathing or respiratory distress. Monitoring respiratory status is crucial to prevent respiratory compromise or arrest.
Other choices are incorrect:
A: Increase in heart rate - Propofol typically causes a decrease in heart rate, not an increase.
C: Increase in bowel function - Propofol does not affect bowel function.
D: Decrease in body temperature - Propofol is not known to cause a decrease in body temperature.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who received the measles, mumps, and rubella virus vaccine. Which of the following findings indicates an adverse reaction to the vaccination?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Petechiae. Petechiae are small red or purple spots on the skin caused by bleeding under the skin. This can indicate a potential adverse reaction to the vaccine, such as a bleeding disorder. The other choices, bradycardia, tinnitus, and blurred vision, are not commonly associated with adverse reactions to the measles, mumps, and rubella vaccine. Bradycardia is a slow heart rate, tinnitus is ringing in the ears, and blurred vision may have other causes unrelated to the vaccination.
Therefore, choice B is the most relevant and concerning finding in this scenario.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse in a provider's office is evaluating the effectiveness of alendronate for a client who has osteoporosis. Which of the following diagnostic results should the nurse review?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (Dexa scan). The Dexa scan is a diagnostic test used to measure bone mineral density and assess the effectiveness of osteoporosis treatment like alendronate. It helps in monitoring the client's bone health and determining if the medication is working to prevent further bone loss. Reviewing the Dexa scan results can provide valuable information on the client's response to the treatment.
Choice A (Urine specific gravity) is not relevant to evaluating the effectiveness of alendronate for osteoporosis.
Choice B (Hemoglobin A1
C) is a test for diabetes management and not specific to osteoporosis treatment.
Choice D (Lumbar puncture) is an invasive procedure used to collect cerebrospinal fluid and is not related to evaluating osteoporosis treatment.