ATI RN
ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam Latest Update Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
Which procedure should be avoided for the client known to have a placenta previa?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: A sterile vaginal exam. This procedure should be avoided for a client known to have placenta previa because it can cause bleeding and potentially lead to a life-threatening situation due to the risk of disrupting the placenta placement. A non-stress test (
A) and an abdominal ultrasound (
D) can be safely performed without causing harm to the client. Urinary catheterization (
B) may be necessary for monitoring but does not pose a direct risk to the placenta. In summary, avoiding a sterile vaginal exam is crucial to prevent complications associated with placenta previa.
Question 2 of 5
Which conditions create a risk for uterine atony in the immediate postpartum period?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Multiparity (having multiple previous pregnancies) and multiple gestation (carrying twins or more) increase the risk of uterine atony, which is the failure of the uterus to contract after childbirth. These conditions lead to uterine stretching and weakening, making it difficult for the uterus to contract effectively to control bleeding postpartum. Option A is incorrect because breastfeeding and chromosome defects do not directly influence uterine atony. Option B is incorrect as postterm birth and amniotomy during labor do not specifically contribute to uterine atony. Option C is incorrect as gestational diabetes and pregnancy-induced hypertension are not directly associated with uterine atony.
Question 3 of 5
During an outpatient clinic visit, a 13-year-old client is diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis. The nurse should expect which of the following to be included in the client's plan of care?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Encourage gargling with warm water to alleviate pain. Gargling with warm water can help soothe a sore throat, a common symptom of infectious mononucleosis. Acetaminophen with codeine (
A) is not typically recommended for mononucleosis pain management in children due to the risk of respiratory depression. Starting a short course of ampicillin (
C) is contraindicated in mononucleosis as it can cause a rash. Encouraging social activity (
D) may not be appropriate as the client may need rest to recover.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse notices a variable deceleration on a fetal monitor strip. Which nursing action is appropriate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Turn the woman onto her left side to relieve pressure on the umbilical cord. Variable decelerations are often caused by umbilical cord compression. Turning the mother onto her left side helps to alleviate this pressure and improve blood flow to the baby. This position change can lead to an improvement in fetal heart rate patterns.
Option A is incorrect because variable decelerations are not caused by hyperventilation. Option B is incorrect because decreasing Pitocin may not address the underlying issue of umbilical cord compression. Option D is incorrect because reducing fluids does not address the cause of variable decelerations.
Question 5 of 5
Which condition must occur in order for identical (monozygotic) twins to develop?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: One sperm fertilizes one ovum. Identical twins develop from a single fertilized egg that splits into two embryos. This process results in monozygotic twins with identical genetic makeup. If one sperm fertilizes two ova (
A), it would result in fraternal (dizygotic) twins, not identical twins. Two sperm fertilizing two ova (
B) would also produce fraternal twins with different genetic compositions. If two sperm fertilize one ovum (
D), it would lead to chromosomal abnormalities, not identical twins.
Therefore, the only scenario that aligns with the development of identical twins is when one sperm fertilizes one ovum, leading to the formation of monozygotic twins.