ATI RN
ATI RN Maternal Newborn Updated 2023 Questions
Extract:
A client about the purpose of her upcoming indirect Coombs' test.
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct statement to include in the teaching is B: "This test will detect the presence of Rh-positive antibodies in your blood." This is the correct answer because it pertains to the purpose of the test, which is to identify Rh incompatibility between the mother and fetus. Detecting Rh-positive antibodies is crucial to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn. The other options are incorrect because A refers to an amniotic fluid index test, C relates to a test for gestational diabetes, and D describes a Doppler ultrasound for evaluating fetal blood flow.
Therefore, B is the most relevant statement for the teaching regarding Rh testing during pregnancy.
Extract:
A client who is at 35 weeks of gestation.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse the need for further diagnostic testing?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The reason further testing is needed when there are three fetal movements perceived by the client in a 20-minute period is that fetal movement assessment is crucial for assessing fetal well-being. A decrease or absence of fetal movements can indicate fetal distress, prompting the need for further evaluation to ensure the well-being of the fetus. In contrast, options A, B, and D describe normal or reassuring findings within the parameters of fetal heart rate monitoring and contractions, indicating fetal well-being. Option A shows a reassuring acceleration in fetal heart rate, option B indicates absence of late decelerations, and option D describes contractions that are not concerning if not felt by the client.
Extract:
A client who is 1 hr postpartum and has preeclampsia without severe features.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess for edema. It is important for the nurse to assess for edema as it can indicate fluid overload or renal dysfunction, both of which require prompt intervention. Edema assessment involves checking for swelling in the extremities, pitting edema, and monitoring intake and output. Obtaining a prescription for misoprostol (
A) is not necessary without a specific indication. Restricting daily oral fluid intake (
C) could be harmful, especially if the patient is already dehydrated. Administering an IV bolus of lactated Ringer's (
D) is not appropriate without a physician's order and assessment indicating the need for fluid resuscitation.
Extract:
A client who has preeclampsia.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following actions is the nurse's priority when implementing seizure precautions?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pad the side rails of the client's bed. This is the priority because it helps prevent injury during a seizure by providing a soft surface if the client hits the rails. Dimming the lights (
A) and ensuring the call button is within reach (
B) are important but not the priority. Suction equipment (
D) is important for respiratory support post-seizure but not the priority during seizure precautions.
Extract:
A postpartum client who recently had an indwelling urinary catheter removed.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following findings indicates that the client is able to void effectively?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: The client urinates 30 mL/hr. This finding indicates effective voiding as it shows the client is producing an adequate amount of urine, which is a sign of proper kidney function and bladder emptying. 30 mL/hr is within the normal range of urine output (0.5-1 mL/kg/hr).
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because not feeling the urge to urinate, the uterine fundus position, and a distended bladder do not directly reflect the client's ability to void effectively.