ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology 2023 III Questions
Extract:
Vital Signs Day 1:
Temperature 36.2 0 C (97.20 F) Respiratory rate 18/min
Heart rate 74/min
Blood pressure 1 1 8/68 mm Hg Sp02 96% on room air
Day 7:
Temperature 36.9 0 C (98.40 F) Heart rate 86/min
Respiratory rate 18/min Blood pressure 98/66 mm Hg Sp02 97% on room air
Provider Prescriptions Day 1:
Levodopa 250 mg/Carbidopa 25 mg 1 tablet daily Day
7:
Levodopa 250 mg/Carbidopa 25 mg 2 tablets daily
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following statements should the nurse include when teaching the client about the prescribed medication? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A,B,D,E,F
Rationale: The correct statements to include when teaching the client about the prescribed medication are A, B, D, E, and F.
A: Consumption of a high-protein meal can reduce the effectiveness of the medication - Important to ensure medication efficacy.
B: You can experience vivid nightmares - Alerts the client to a potential side effect.
D: The medication can cause nausea, so take with a meal - Helps manage a common side effect.
E: This medication can make you light-headed if you stand up too quickly from a seated or lying position - Warns about potential orthostatic hypotension.
F: You may initially notice an increase in involuntary movements - Indicates a possible side effect to monitor.
These statements were selected for their relevance in preparing the client for potential side effects, interactions, and necessary precautions while taking the medication.
Extract:
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of warfarin to a client. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse review prior to administration?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: PT (Prothrombin Time). PT is used to monitor warfarin therapy as it measures the extrinsic pathway of the clotting process, which warfarin affects. Monitoring PT helps ensure the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent bleeding or clotting complications.
Total iron-binding capacity (
B) is unrelated to warfarin therapy. WBC (
C) is a white blood cell count, not relevant for warfarin monitoring. PTT (
D) is used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following situations requires an incident report?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: A client receives their insulin 1 hr before scheduled. This situation requires an incident report because administering insulin at the wrong time could lead to serious complications like hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia. Incident reports are crucial for documenting errors in patient care to ensure proper follow-up and prevent future occurrences.
Choices A, B, and D do not involve potential harm or risk to the client's health, thus not requiring an incident report.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has received oxycodone. The nurse notes that the client's respiratory rate is 8/min. The nurse should identify that which of the following is the pathophysiology for the client's respiratory rate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Correct
Answer: C - Oxycodone causes central nervous system depression.
Rationale: Oxycodone is an opioid analgesic that acts on the central nervous system to provide pain relief. One of the common side effects of opioids is respiratory depression, which can lead to a decreased respiratory rate. This occurs because opioids suppress the activity of the brainstem respiratory centers, leading to decreased drive to breathe and ultimately slowing down the respiratory rate.
Therefore, in this scenario, the client's low respiratory rate of 8/min is likely due to the central nervous system depression caused by oxycodone.
Summary of Incorrect
Choices:
A: Oxycodone blocking the sodium channel suspending nerve conduction is not the mechanism behind the respiratory depression seen with opioids.
B: Oxycodone promoting vasodilation of cranial arteries is not related to the respiratory depression caused by opioids.
D: Oxycodone inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis is not the mechanism responsible for the respiratory
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer cefazolin 1 g in 0.9% sodium chloride 100 ml- via intermittent IV bolus over 30 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is I5 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 50 gtt/min.
To calculate the IV infusion rate, we first convert 30 minutes to seconds (30 min x 60 sec/min = 1800 sec).
Then, we use the formula: (Volume to infuse in ml / time in seconds) x drop factor = gtt/min. Substituting the values, we get (100 ml / 1800 sec) x 15 gtt/ml = 0.833 gtt/sec. Since we need the answer in gtt/min, we convert 0.833 gtt/sec to gtt/min by multiplying by 60, resulting in 49.98 gtt/min, which rounds up to 50 gtt/min. This is the correct rate for administering cefazolin over 30 minutes. Other choices are incorrect because they do not yield the appropriate infusion rate based on the calculations.